BiologyQuestions, C#

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//Rextester.Program.Main is the entry point for your code. Don't change it.
//Compiler version 4.0.30319.17929 for Microsoft (R) .NET Framework 4.5

using System;
using System.Collections.Generic;
using System.Linq;
using System.Text.RegularExpressions;

namespace Rextester
{
    public class Program
    {
        public static void Main(string[] args)
        {
            //C#Program:
//https://rextester.com/QAAUH74741

Random rnd = new Random();             int n = rnd.Next(1, 601);             string x = "1. Which of the following statements are the part of the cell theory: a. only animals are composed of cells b. all cells consist of the same elements and molecules c. all cells come from existing cells d. all living things are made of cells e. cells are the basic units of structure and function in all living organisms f. cells must contain DNA g. all cells are surrounded by the plasma membrane h. all cells have the ability of storing and replicating the genetic information 2. Bacteria: a. are the simplest cellular organisms b. are prokaryotes c. may form multicellular organisms d. can only form unicellular organisms e. may have numerous membranous organelles f. have no membranous compartments within a cell g. contain large central vacuoles h. are usually surrounded by a strong cell wall 3. Which of the following statements are correct: a. DNA contains the four different bases A, G, U, and C b. nucleic acids contain sugar groups c. plants have chloroplasts and therefore can live without mitochondria d. cytosol is only present in eukaryotic cells e. ribosomes become linked by an mRNA molecule to form polyribosomes f. cytoplasmic membrane consists of phospholipid double layer and peripheral and integral proteins g. lysosomes digest only substances that have been taken up by endocytosis h. cell wall is permeable 4. The basic cell surfaces of eukaryotic cells include: a. plasmalemma b. nuclear envelope c. cuticle d. pellicle e. cell wall f. cytoplasmic membrane g. slime capsule h. nuclear membrane 5. Cytoplasmic membrane: a. is usually the only biomembrane in prokaryotic cells b. regulates the intake of substances into the cell c. is called plasmalemma d. is called nuclear membrane e. belongs to basic cellular surfaces f. contains receptors so cells can receive signals g. forms the environment for life and metabolic activity of organelles h. primarily provides mechanical protection of the cell 6. There are two basic types of cells: a. plant and animal b. nuclear and nucleus-free c. differentiated and non-differentiated d. prokaryotic and eukaryotic e. microscopic and submicroscopic f. simple and compound g. membrane and non-membrane h. somatic and germ 7. Which of the following organelles are found in plant cells but not in animal cells: a. mitochondria b. endoplasmic reticulum c. central vacuole d. Golgi apparatus e. chloroplasts f. nucleolus g. lysosomes h. ribosomes 8. What is the name of the jelly-like substance inside the cell: a. cytoplasm b. cytokinesis c. cytosol d. plasma membrane e. matrix f. plasmalemma g. karyon h. karyolemma 9. Prokaryotic cells do not have: a. plastids b. membrane-bounded organelles c. ribosomes d. nucleus e. cytoplasmic membrane f. DNA g. nucleolus h. mitochondria 10. Biomembranes consist of: a. a double layer of proteins and molecules of saccharides b. a double layer of lipids and integral and peripheral proteins c. a double layer of phospholipids and a double layer of saccharides d. a single layer of phospholipids and two layers of the molecules of proteins e. molecules of phospholipids which form a double layer and molecules of proteins f. the external protein layer and the internal lipid layer g. integral and peripheral lipids and molecules of proteins h. a double layer of phospholipids, in which molecules of proteins are immersed 11. Eukaryotic cells, unlike prokaryotic ones: a. have membrane-bounded organelles b. do not have membrane-bounded organelles c. have a nucleus bounded by double membrane d. do not have nuclear envelope e. have circular nuclear chromosomes f. possess a nucleus g. have their internal space compartmentalized into organelles h. contain DNA as a store of genetic information 12. Animal cells, unlike plant cells: a. are separated from the external environment by a cytoplasmic membrane b. contain lysosomes filled with enzymes that degrade polymers into their monomeric subunits in the cell c. contain vacuoles d. are surrounded by the polysaccharide cell walls e. may have plasmodesmata that connect neighbouring cells f. do not have any cell wall g. have a tonoplast h. may contain myofibrils, tonofibrils, neurofibrils 13. The cytoskeleton of a cell: a. enables for spatial division of organelles in the cell b. represents a static skeleton of the cell c. is employed in the process of diffusion d. is employed in the process of phagocytosis e. is employed in the process of pinocytosis f. is employed in the process of osmosis g. is composed of nucleoprotein fibres h. has kinetic, mechanical and supportive functions 14. Rough endoplasmic reticulum: a. is the site of vitamin D synthesis b. is the site of lipid synthesis c. lacks ribosomes d. is the site of protein synthesis e. has the outer side of membrane studded with ribosomes f. plays role in the intracellular transport of substances g. plays role in the intercellular transport of substances h. does not belong to membrane-bounded organelles of the cell 15. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum: a. does not have the outer side of membrane studded with ribosomes b. is visible under the light microscope c. participates in the synthesis of lipids d. functions in lipid production and metabolism e. contains mainly hydrolytic enzymes f. has the inner side of membrane studded with ribosomes g. is the site of protein synthesis h. plays role in the intracellular transport of some substances 16. Lysosomes: a. act in lytic processes in the cell b. are present in animal cells c. are present in prokaryotic cells d. are present in plant cells e. modify the substances synthesized on ribosomes, so they may be excreted out of the cell f. contain hydrolytic enzymes used for intracellular digestion g. transfer molecules between different compartments h. digest worn out organelles 17. Mitochondria are: a. present only in eukaryotic cells b. organelles with two membranes c. energy centre of the cell d. present in some of the prokaryotic cells e. metabolic-respiratory centre of the cell f. synthetic centre of the cell g. present in numbers that directly correlate with the level of cell metabolic activity h. present only in animal cells 18. Cell nucleus: a. is called as nucleoid in eukaryotic cells b. is called as nucleolus c. consists mainly of RNA and proteins d. of eukaryotic cells contains circular chromosomes e. contains the DNA and proteins, which form chromatin f. has nuclear envelope on the surface g. has plasmalemma on the surface h. is surrounded by double membrane 19. Ribosomes: a. belong to membrane-bounded organelles of the cell b. can be seen using a light microscope c. are submicroscopic particles d. do not belong to membrane-bounded organelles of the cell e. are only visible in an electron microscope f. are attached to the smooth endoplasmic reticulum g. are macromolecular structures composed of DNA and proteins h. are macromolecular structures composed of rRNA and proteins 20. Mitochondria: a. are organelles with single membrane b. are organelles with double membrane c. synthesize their own specific proteins d. have the molecules of the DNA in the matrix e. have the enzyme complex for the Krebs cycle in the matrix f. are filled with stroma g. represents a dynamic skeleton of the cell h. have enzymes of the oxidative phosphorylation localized on the mitochondrial cristae 21. How many biomembranes do the mitochondria have: a. one b. two – one granular and one smooth c. two d. one or two according to the energy requirements of the cell e. two – the inner one folded and the outer one smooth f. two with mitochondrial pores g. one or two according to the type of the cell h. two – one permeable and one semipermeable 22. Golgi apparatus: a. is responsible for transporting, modifying, and packaging of proteins b. is responsible for transporting, modifying, and packaging lipids into vesicles for delivery to targeted destinations c. is important for lysosome formation d. is important for formation of secretory vesicles e. is located in the cytoplasm of prokaryotic cells f. acts as storage compartment for nutrients and wastes of the cell g. is responsible for cell oxidations h. is made up of approximately four to eight cisternae 23. Dictyosomes: a. are part of chloroplasts b. comprise the Golgi apparatus c. are similar to lysosomes d. are part endoplasmic reticulum e. are present in prokaryotic cells f. are found in eukaryotic cells g. are part of the endomembrane system in the cytoplasm h. are stacks of flat, membrane bounded cisternae 24. The cytoskeleton of the cell: a. belongs to membranous structures b. is necessary for all types of cellular active movements c. represents a dynamic structure of the cell d. represents a static structure of the cell e. belongs to fibrous structures f. belongs to non-living parts of the cell g. is formed by microtubules, microfilaments, and intermediate filaments h. is formed by nucleoprotein fibres 25. Nucleolus: a. is in the cytoplasm and consists of the RNA and proteins b. is in the nucleus and consists of the DNA and proteins c. is a permanent structure of the nucleus d. is made up of rRNA and proteins e. is a region where rRNA synthesis occurs f. is a structure which disappears during the cell division g. has a nucleolar envelope h. is localized into the cytoplasm of prokaryotic cells 26. Nucleus of eukaryotic cells: a. contains chromatin b. contains centriole c. is the control centre of the cell d. contains the majority of the cell’s genetic material e. has nuclear envelope made of one biomembrane only f. is present in all cells of our body g. is a submicroscopic structure h. occurs in all eukaryotic cells except some highly specialised ones 27. Prokaryotic cell: a. may contain thylakoids b. may contain chloroplasts, e.g. cyanobacteria c. contains prokaryotic ribosomes d. has a cytoplasmic membrane e. has a nucleoid f. has the linear DNA molecules placed in cytoplasm g. has its internal space compartmentalized by membranes into organelles h. has homologous circular chromosomes placed in cytoplasm 28. Proteosynthesis can take place in: a. lysosomes b. smooth endoplasmic reticulum c. ribosomes d. mitochondria e. plasma membrane f. nucleus g. dictyosomes h. vacuoles 29. These organelles store DNA in the cell: a. smooth endoplasmic reticulum b. vacuoles c. nucleus d. chloroplasts e. structural organelles of the cell f. mitochondria g. ribosomes h. nucleolus 30. The following do not belong to membranous organelles: a. ribosomes b. lysosomes c. bacterial nucleus d. mitochondria e. centriole f. cytoskeleton g. nucleolus h. vacuoles 31. The following belong to the membranous organelles: a. nucleolus b. centrosomes c. ribosomes d. chromosomes e. Golgi apparatus f. cytoskeleton g. lysosomes h. vacuoles 32. The following belong to the mitotic apparatus of the cell: centromeres b. chromosomes c. astrosphere d. centrioles e. polar bodies f. mitotic spindle g. chromatids h. nucleolus organizer regions 33. Endocytosis: a. is e.g. pinocytosis b. involves rearrangement of cytoplasmic membrane and cytoskeleton c. is a passive transport of substances into the cell d. is an active transport of substances into the cell e. is an active transport of substances out of the cell f. does not require any energy of ATP g. requires carrier proteins h. is e.g. phagocytosis 34. Plant cell in hypertonic solution: a. loses water b. increases its pressure c. does not change the volume d. undergoes plasmolysis e. takes up water by osmosis f. increases its volume g. decreases its internal volume h. loses water and the plasma membrane detaches from the cell wall 35. Diffusion and osmosis have in common that: a. both are an example of active transport of substances b. both require energy of ATP c. both are an example of passive transport of substances d. molecules move through cytoplasmic membrane from the place of lower concentration to the place of higher concentration e. in both rearrangement of cytoplasmic membrane and cytoskeleton happens f. molecules move through cytoplasmic membrane from the place of higher concentration to the place of lower concentration g. both do not require energy of ATP h. in both rearrangement of cytoplasmic membrane and cytoskeleton does not happen 36. Passive transport of substances across cell membrane: a. does not require energy b. is e.g. the transfer of glucose and of amino acids against the concentration gradient c. is the transfer of substances against their concentration gradient d. is e.g. diffusion e. is e.g. osmosis f. is passage of solutes down their concentration gradient g. does not depend on the concentration gradient of the given substance h. is typical for the passage of water molecules, gases, ethanol 37. Hypotonic solution: a. is the solution with lower concentration of the solutes b. is the solution with higher concentration of the solutes c. causes the plasmolysis of plant cells d. causes the burst of animal cells e. causes the lysis of red blood cells f. causes detachment of the plasma membrane from the cell wall g. is e.g. distilled water h. causes osmotic water intake by the cell 38. Transport proteins of the plasma membrane: a. transport the substances in form of vesicles down the concentration gradient b. are universal for the transport of all substances c. are very specific to the transported substances d. specifically transport some of the substances into the cell e. are important in endocytosis f. play an important role in diffusion and osmosis g. transport the substances that are unable to pass into the cell by simple diffusion h. are used in facilitated diffusion 39. Mark the incorrect answers: a. cytoskeleton is important for the diffusion and osmosis b. vacuoles play a significant role in metabolic processes of the animal cells c. microtubules contain tubulin d. microfilaments contain pectin e. mitotic spindle is formed between the centromeres f. plastid is a type of chloroplast g. microfilaments are important for cell shortening and microtubules for cell prolongation h. thylakoids occur predominantly in chlorophyll a 40. The following may pass across the biomembrane by diffusion: a. all the substances into the cell b. all the substances out of the cell c. gases d. ethanol e. oxygen across the alveolar walls into the blood f. small molecules that are hydrophobic g. water h. carbon dioxide from the blood into the tissue cells 41. The rate of simple diffusion through the cytoplasmic membrane is influenced by: a. size of the molecules – the larger, the faster b. the amount of ATP energy c. the activity of transport proteins d. the difference in molecule concentration inside and outside of the cell e. the concentration gradient f. temperature – the warmer, the faster g. enzymatic activity of the membrane h. the degree of differentiation of the cell 42. Cells make pseudopodia: a. during pinocytosis b. by means of the cytoskeleton c. during phagocytosis d. during osmosis e. by means of microfilaments f. for detection and engulfing of antigens, e.g. white blood cells g. during exocytosis h. during the passive transport of substances into the cell 43. Animal cell in the hypotonic solution: a. shrinks b. swells and bursts c. undergoes osmotic lysis d. undergoes plasmolysis e. does not change its volume f. takes on water by osmosis g. increases its volume h. loses water by osmosis 44. Animal cell in the hypertonic solution: a. shrinks b. actively transports water molecules out of the cell c. bursts d. loses water e. undergoes plasmolysis f. decreases its volume g. needs energy of ATP to transfer water molecules h. does not change 45. Active transport across the cytoplasmic membrane is typical for the transport of: a. water b. gases c. ethanol d. calcium ions into the cells e. substances by means of transport proteins called solute pumps f. sodium ions against a concentration gradient g. potassium ions against a concentration gradient h. substances that does not require energy of ATP 46. Cell wall: a. is selectively permeable b. is permeable for water and substances soluble in water c. forms an osmotic barrier of the plant cell d. is a product of the protoplast of the plant cell e. has a nourishment function f. maintains the shape of the cell g. is semipermeable h. of the bacterial cell contains pectin 47. Which of the following is the digestion centre of the animal cells: a. vesicles b. Golgi apparatus c. central vacuole d. cytoplasm e. smooth endoplasmic reticulum f. rough endoplasmic reticulum g. lysosomes h. membrane organelles containing hydrolytic enzymes 48. Which of the following processes take place in chloroplasts: a. photosynthesis b. oxidative phosphorylation c. synthesis of their specific proteins d. glycolysis e. Krebs cycle f. detoxification of drugs and poisons g. synthesis of their own nucleic acids h. production of polysaccharides for plant cell walls 49. Vacuoles: a. are surrounded by a membrane called the tonoplast b. are filled with cytosol c. can store waste d. carry out hydrolysis e. are much more important in prokaryotic cells f. serve as a storage organelles g. are a product of plant cell protoplast h. are filled with stroma 50. Nuclear envelope: a. surrounds the genetic material and nucleolus in eukaryotic cells b. consists of two lipid bilayers - the inner nuclear membrane, and the outer nuclear membrane c. surrounds the genetic material and nucleolus in prokaryotic cells d. has many small openings called nuclear pores e. is the membrane that encloses the cell f. is double membrane that encloses the nuclear genome g. is permeable barrier that separates the nucleus from the cytoplasm in eukaryotic cells h. contains nuclear pores 51. Plant cell in contrast to the animal cell has: a. mitochondria b. plastids c. ribosomes d. vacuoles e. rough endoplasmic reticulum f. cell wall g. lysosomes h. microtubules 52. Cells of all the animals: a. are eukaryotic b. are prokaryotic c. have membranous organelles d. have lysosomes e. have a pellicle f. are interconnected by plasmodesmata g. contain leucoplasts h. reproduce by binary fission 53. Lysosomes are cell organelles that: a. digest phagocytosed material b. contain hydrolytic enzymes c. contain digestive enzymes d. are present in animal cells e. are present in plant cells f. are present in the cytoplasm of prokaryotic cells g. are present in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells h. are studded with protein-manufacturing ribosomes 54. Flagella and cilia: a. are composed of nine sets of triplet microtubules arranged into a ring b. are made up of microfilaments c. have a “9 + 2” arrangement of microtubules d. are structurally identical to centrioles e. maintain the shape of the cell f. are made up of microtubules g. have a “9 + 3” arrangement of microtubules h. are anchored in the cell by a basal body 55. The following are not found in plant cells: a. lysosomes b. neurofibrils c. tonofibrils d. hydrolytic enzymes e. tonoplast f. nucleoli g. plasmodesmata h. myofibrils 56. Tonoplast: a. is on the surface of leucoplasts b. is a permeable membrane on the surface of vacuoles c. is a semipermeable membrane on the surface of vacuoles d. is semipermeable e. is on the surface of lysosomes f. is the membrane that surrounds the vacuole g. is unique to animal cells h. separates the content of vacuoles from cytoplasm 57. The following are found in the stroma of chloroplasts: a. thylakoids b. circular molecules of the DNA c. chromatin d. linear molecules of the DNA e. hydrolytic enzymes f. cell sap g. carotenoids h. plastid ribosomes 58. The double helix structure of the DNA and its significance for the transmission of genetic information was discovered: a. by C. Woese b. in the year 1944 c. in the year 1953 d. by F. H. Crick e. by J. G. Mendel f. in the year 1866 g. by J. D. Watson h. in the year 1966 59. The following are the monomers of proteins: a. nucleotides b. peptides c. amino groups d. atoms of carbon and nitrogen e. amino acids f. nitrogenous organic bases g. monosaccharides h. nucleosides 60. Amino acids are linked in the polypeptide chain by: a. ester bonds b. phosphodiester bonds c. glycoside bonds d. peptide bonds e. hydrogen bonds f. peptide bonds between the nitrogenous bases g. covalent bonds h. noncovalent bonds 61. Proteins: a. are important in cell signalling as receptors or hormones b. act as an energy storage in the cell c. are made up of nucleotides d. have metabolic function – e.g. fibrous proteins e. are important in immune responses f. may have mechanical function – e.g. globular proteins g. are composed of amino acids joined by phosphodiester bonds h. have structural function 62. The building blocks of nucleic acid molecules are: a. amino acids b. adenine, guanine, thymine, cytosine c. nucleotides d. chromatin fibres e. nitrogenous bases f. nucleosides g. ribonucleotides or deoxyribonucleotides h. pentoses 63. Nucleic acids: a. are polypeptides b. are esters of higher fatty acids and glycerol c. are polynucleotides d. are macromolecules e. consist of monomers called nucleotides f. consist of monomers called amino acids g. do not belong to polymers h. are always double stranded molecules 64. Lipids: a. are water-insoluble biomolecules b. are part of some hormones c. catalyse chemical reactions in the cell d. do not belong to polymers e. are soluble in nonpolar solvents f. act as energy storage g. act as structural components of cell membranes h. may have a protective function, e.g. waxes in plants 65. What is the name of the attachment point between sister chromatids in a chromosome: a. centromere b. centriole c. primary constriction d. centrosome e. spindle f. metaphase plate g. telomere h. kinetochore 66. In the prophase of the mitosis: a. centrosomes are divided and migrate to the opposite poles of the nucleus b. chromosomes consist of two chromatids c. chromosomes consist of single chromatid d. chromosomes are condensed e. chromosomes begin to coil tightly f. nuclear envelope breaks down g. chromosomes uncoil h. centrosomes migrate to the opposite poles of the cell 67. In the metaphase of the mitosis: a. chromosomes consist of two sister chromatids b. chromosomes consist of a single chromatid c. each chromosome replicates to produce two sister chromatids d. chromosomes are aligned in equatorial plane e. chromosomes are further uncoiled f. sister chromatids separate and move to the opposite poles of the cell g. the coiling of chromosomes reaches the maximum h. microtubules of the mitotic spindle are attached to the centromere of each chromosome 68. In the telophase of the mitosis: a. the chromosomes begin to condense b. the chromosomes begin to uncoil and elongate c. chromosomes consist of two sister chromatids d. chromosomes consist of a single chromatid e. mitotic spindle is disassembled f. the nuclear envelope breaks down g. nucleolus disappears h. the nuclear envelope forms around each daughter nucleus 69. Cytokinesis: a. is a science that examines shape and structure of cells b. begins and ends by the division of nucleus into two daughter ones c. is division of the cytoplasm d. ensures the formation of multinuclear cells e. is part of the interphase f. is a period of growth of the cell g. is the cell movement h. is a division of the parental cell into two daughter cells 70. Somatic cells of animals: a. are haploid b. are diploid c. have 2 sets of chromosomes d. are genetically homologous e. are genetically identical f. are genetically different g. are genetically different after differentiation h. are produced by meiosis Bivalents are formed: a. in the prophase of the second meiotic division b. in the anaphase of the first meiotic division c. in the prophase of the first meiotic division d. by pairing of homologous chromosomes e. by pairing of genetically identical chromosomes f. by pairing of heterologous chromosomes g. in the prophase I and disjoin in the anaphase I h. in the prophase of the reductional division of mitosis Mark the correct answer: a. only diploid cells undergo meiosis b. only haploid cells undergo meiosis c. in the anaphase I, sister chromatids move to the opposite poles of the cell d. in the anaphase I, double-chromatid chromosomes move to the opposite poles of the cell e. individual chromosomes in the metaphase I align in the equatorial plane f. bivalents align in the equatorial plane in the metaphase I g. crossing-over occurs in the prophase of meiosis II h. the second meiotic division is characterised by the reduction of the chromosome number Zygote: a. is a fertilized egg b. is formed by the reductional division c. is a mature gamete d. is formed by a fertilization e. is haploid f. is diploid g. is termed as blastomere h. results from the fusion of a female gamete and male gamete Karyokinesis: a. is division of a cell nucleus in mitosis or meiosis b. is division of a cell into two daughter ones c. is part of the interphase of the cell cycle d. is part of the cell cycle e. is a process of reduplication of the nuclear DNA f. is a process of cytoplasm division in the cell g. precedes cytokinesis h. compartmentalizes the two new nuclei into separate daughter cells Cell division: a. is termed as karyokinesis b. may be binary fission in prokaryotic cells c. is usually part of M–phase of the cell cycle d. occurs in the interphase of the cell cycle e. provides for regeneration of the damaged tissues and organs f. is needed to compensate for the loss of the cells g. means reproduction of the cells h. includes karyokinesis and cytokinesis Daughter cells produced by mitotic division: a. are genetically identical to the parent cell b. are genetically identical to each other c. are identical, each of the chromosomes is divided transversely, similarly to the division in the 1st meiotic division d. have half the number of chromosomes, each of the chromosomes is divided longitudinally, similarly to the division in the 2nd meiotic division e. are diploid f. are haploid g. are genetically different to each other h. are identical, i.e. diploid 77. Cells produced by meiosis: a. are genetically identical to the parent cell b. are not genetically identical to each other c. have one chromosome set d. are always genetically identical to each other e. have two chromosome sets f. are gametes g. are not genetically identical to the mother cell h. are the basis of variability of organisms 78. Meiosis I: a. resembles mitosis b. reduces chromosome number from diploid to haploid c. is the second meiotic division d. does not guarantee equal distribution of the genetic material e. results in four daughter haploid cells f. is the first meiotic division g. does not change the number of chromosomes h. is the first mitotic division 79. Meiosis: a. produces daughter cells with a full diploid chromosome number b. reduces the amount of genetic material to the half c. results in the formation of haploid gametes d. results in the formation of diploid gametes e. results in the formation of gametes that are not genetically identical f. creates four haploid cells, each genetically distinct from the parent cell g. consists of two divisions with a different course h. divides one cell into two genetically identical daughter cells 80. Equational division of meiosis: a. is the first meiotic division b. is the second meiotic division c. has prophase I, metaphase I, anaphase I, telophase I d. has prophase II, metaphase II, anaphase II, telophase II e. has complicated prophase, in which crossing-over occurs f. follows a short interphase with a brief DNA replication g. follows a short interphase without no DNA replication h. reduces the number of chromosomes 81. The movement of water molecules across the plasma membrane toward the place with higher solute concentration is: a. plasmolysis b. lysis c. process not requiring energy of ATP d. passive transport e. active transport f. osmosis g. endocytosis h. exocytosis 82. Chromosomes: a. are visible only in dividing cells b. are visible in the interphase c. homologous are genetically identical d. have a centromere also termed as secondary constriction e. contain the genetic material f. are divided by centromere in two arms g. in the metaphase of mitosis consist of two chromatids, which are genetically identical h. are circular in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells Cell cycle: a. is divided into three phases b. consists of two phases: interphase and M – phase c. is stopped in the S – phase because of the absence of nutrients in the environment d. is controlled by the main check point in the G1 – phase e. may be disturbed by some of the viruses f. includes S phase in which DNA replication occurs g. has G1, S, G2 and M – phase in prokaryotic cells h. includes nuclear division and cytoplasmic division Phases of the complete cell cycle are ordered as follows: a. karyokinesis and cytokinesis b. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase c. reductional and equational division d. G1, S, G2, M e. G0, G1, S, G2, M f. binary fission, mitosis, meiosis g. interphase and M – phase h. post-mitotic phase, S – phase, pre-mitotic phase, M – phase Interphase: a. is a phase when the cell does not divide b. includes mitosis c. is a relatively short period of the cell cycle d. is the phase when the cell divides e. includes prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase f. is divided into three phases: G1, S, and G2 g. includes the main checkpoint of the cell cycle h. is a growth phase of the cell that produces proteins and cytoplasmic organelles In the G1 – phase: a. cell synthesizes its vast array of proteins b. cell checks whether it has enough raw materials to fully replicate its DNA c. nuclear envelope disassembles d. mitotic apparatus forms e. checkpoint of karyokinesis can be found f. chromosomes are visible g. replication of cell organelles occurs h. DNA replication is completed Sister chromatids: a. are produced by the replication of the DNA in the S-phase b. are homologous c. are held together at the centromere d. segregate in the anaphase of mitosis e. segregate in the anaphase of meiosis I f. segregate in the anaphase of meiosis II g. segregate in the telophase h. are genetically identical Mark the incorrect answer: a. chromosomes become shortened and thicker during the prophase b. in the metaphase, chromosomes are arranged in the equatorial plane and are divided transversely c. in the S – phase DNA is replicated d. in the prophase, the centrosome divides and both migrate to the opposite poles in the centre of the nucleus e. during telophase, the fibres of the mitotic spindle disassemble f. in the beginning of anaphase, the diploid number of chromosomes is assembled on the opposite poles of dividing cell g. G1 – phase is called the main checkpoint of the cell cycle h. in the prophase I, chromatids of homologous chromosomes in bivalents undergo crossing over 89. Proteins, synthesized in the G1 – phase, are used for: a. the formation of mitotic apparatus b. the formation of cellular organelles c. the formation of single-chromatid chromosomes d. growth processes in the cell e. making copies of cell organelles f. the formation of storage structures g. the formation of mitotic spindle h. DNA replication 90. In S – phase of the cell cycle: a. synthesis of DNA occurs b. replication of single-chromatid chromosomes occurs c. division of nuclear chromosomes occurs d. the cytoplasm of the cell is split in two e. duplication of cell organelles occurs f. duplication of double-chromatid chromosomes occurs g. cell synthesizes a complete copy of the DNA in its nucleus h. number of homologous chromosomes is duplicated 91. Karyokinesis and cytokinesis occur: a. in the interphase of the cell cycle b. in the M – phase of the cell cycle c. in the telophase of mitosis d. in the G2 – phase of the cell cycle e. in the telophase II f. in the metaphase of the cell cycle g. in the resting stage called G0 h. in the telophase I 92. The following belong to the interphase of the cell cycle: a. G2 – phase b. G1 – phase c. M – phase d. meiosis e. mitosis f. cytokinesis g. S – phase h. nuclear division 93. Name the phase of the cell cycle when the chromosomes line up in the centre of the cell: a. prophase b. anaphase c. interphase d. S – phase e. G2 – phase f. interphase between the meiosis I and the meiosis II g. metaphase h. telophase 94. Mark the correct order of mitotic stages: a. prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase b. interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, cytokinesis c. G1, S, G2, M d. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase e. cytokinesis, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, interphase f. prophase, metaphase, telophase, anaphase g. karyokinesis and cytokinesis h. metaphase, prophase, anaphase, telophase 95. Transcription is the synthesis of: a. RNA b. DNA c. proteins d. nucleoproteins e. mRNA f. ribonucleotides g. tRNA h. phospholipids Synthesis of RNA occurs: a. in all phases of the cell cycle b. in the G1 and G2 phase c. in the M phase d. in the cell nucleus and the endoplasmic reticulum e. at the beginning of the M phase f. in the mitochondria g. on the principle of complementarity of nitrogenous bases h. in the chloroplasts of plant cells In animal cells DNA replication takes place: a. in the cytoplasm b. only in the nucleolus c. only in the nucleus d. in the nucleus and mitochondria e. in the nucleus and lysosomes f. during interphase g. during the S phase h. during the M phase In the DNA molecule, the following are complementary base pairs: a. A-G, C-G, A-T, G-C b. C-T, A-T, G-C, C-G c. G-A, C-G, T-A, G-C d. T-A, G-C, A-T, C-G e. T-A, G-C, T-C, G-A f. C-G, A-T, G-C, T-A g. A-U, A-T, A-G, C-G h. G-C, G-A, C-T, A-T DNA polymerase catalyzes: a. joining of nucleoproteins b. joining of deoxyribonucleotides c. joining of ribonucleotides d. formation of deoxyribonucleotides e. the process of replication f. the process of transcription g. pairing of bases h. elongation of the newly synthesized DNA strand 100. tRNA is produced: a. by replication b. on the ribosomes c. by translation d. by transcription from the DNA e. as double stranded molecule f. as single stranded molecule g. in the cell nucleus h. in the mitochondria 101. rRNA is formed: a. by the transcription b. by the replication c. by the translation d. on the ribosomes e. by the reduplication according to the DNA template f. as single stranded molecule g. in the nucleolus h. as double stranded molecule 102. DNA synthesis: a. uses inorganic nitrogenous bases b. is the creation of ribonucleic acid molecules c. uses deoxyribonucleotides d. uses nucleosides e. uses deoxyribonucleoproteins f. uses molecules of ATP g. uses amino acids h. is termed as replication 103. The template for the DNA synthesis in the cell: a. is one nucleoside strand b. are both complementary DNA strands c. is only one strand of the original DNA d. is each of separated DNA strands e. is the sequence of bases of only one DNA strand f. is the mRNA strand g. is the molecule of protein h. are ribonucleotides of both strands of the original DNA 104. RNA molecules in the plant cell are synthesized: a. in the nucleus b. in cytoplasm c. on the ribosomes d. on the endoplasmic reticulum e. using the DNA template strand f. using the DNA nontemplate strand g. in the mitochondria h. using RNA polymerases 105. The amino acid sequence in the polypeptide chain is determined: a. by the sequence of triplets in the tRNA b. by the sequence of nucleosides of the DNA c. by the sequence of triplets in the rRNA d. by the sequence of triplets in the mRNA e. by the sequence of triplets in the nuclides in the RNA f. by the peptide bond g. on the basis of complementarity of codon of the mRNA and anticodon of the tRNA h. on the basis of complementarity of codon of the mRNA and anticodon of the rRNA 106. Complementarity of bases: a. describes a relationship between mRNA and amino acids b. describes a relationship between tRNA triplets and amino acids c. is the basic principle of DNA replication d. is seen between two antiparallel strands of DNA e. describes a relationship between codon and anticodon f. is the basic principle of transcription of genetic information g. allows the formation of identical copies of DNA molecules h. describes a relationship between rRNA and amino acids 107. Protein synthesis takes place: a. in the mitochondria and chloroplasts b. only in the mitochondria c. in the nucleus d. in all of the membranous organelles e. with the help of proteases f. on the ribosomes g. on the rough form of the endoplasmic reticulum h. on the smooth endoplasmic reticulum 108. tRNA function is: a. transport of amino acids into the nucleus b. transfer of amino acids to ribosomes c. transfer of information from cytoplasm to ribosomes d. transfer of information from the DNA to rRNA e. carried out in the cytoplasm f. transfer of the genetic information in the cytoplasm g. to provide a link between mRNA and amino acids h. transfer of information between the mitochondria and the nucleus 109. mRNA function is: a. transport of amino acids on ribosomes b. transmission of information for the formation of ribosomes c. to form a template for the production of RNA d. to form a template for the production of proteins e. transmission of information about protein sequence f. transmission of genetic information from the chromosomal DNA to cytoplasm g. to build subunits of ribosomes h. to be the genetic information of some viruses 110. mRNA is produced: a. on ribosomes b. in the nucleus c. in the endoplasmic reticulum d. by process of RNA replication e. in the cytoplasm of prokaryotes by transcription from DNA f. in the nucleolus g. by process of translation h. in the mitochondria 111. RNA molecules: a. contain organic bases A, U, G, T, sugar pentose and a phosphate group b. have as building blocks nucleotides linked into polypeptide chains c. are transcribed from RNA d. contain organic bases G, A, C, U, a five carbon sugar and a phosphate group e. are transcribed from DNA f. contain organic bases C, G, A, U, sugar ribose and a phosphate group g. are double stranded molecules h. are a single stranded molecules 112. Deoxyribonucleotides: a. consist of nitrogenous bases A, G, C, T, sugar deoxyribose and a phosphate group b. can form polynucleotides c. consist of nitrogenous bases A, G, U, C, sugar deoxyribose and a phosphate group d. are linked by peptide bonds in the DNA strand e. are linked by noncovalent bonds in the DNA strand f. are the building blocks of DNA g. are linked together by phosphodiester bonds in the DNA strand h. are the building blocks of all nucleic acids 113. DNA replication: a. uses only one of the two original strands of parental DNA as template b. uses single-stranded DNA template, each of the new DNA molecules has both strands newly synthesized c. results in one double-stranded DNA molecule d. uses each of the two original strands of parental DNA as templates e. results in two double-stranded DNA molecules f. is the process catalysed by DNA polymerase g. represents the flow of genetic information from DNA to RNA h. represents the flow of genetic information from DNA to DNA 114. Transcription is a flow of genetic information from: a. DNA to mRNA b. DNA to DNA c. mRNA into polypeptide d. tRNA to rRNA e. mRNA to ribosomes f. DNA to rRNA g. DNA to tRNA h. RNA to RNA 115. Replication is a transmission of genetic information from: a. DNA to mRNA b. DNA to DNA c. mRNA to DNA d. RNA to RNA – e.g. in RNA viruses e. mRNA to tRNA f. DNA to DNA in the cytoplasm of the eukaryotic cell g. mRNA to mRNA h. ribosomes to polypeptide 116. Translation is a transmission of the genetic information from: a. DNA to rRNA b. DNA to mRNA c. form of sequence of ribonucleotides into the sequence of amino acids d. tRNA to polypeptide e. mRNA to polypeptide chain f. ribosomes to polypeptide g. mRNA to DNA h. rRNA to polypeptide chain 117. Ribosomal RNA functions in: a. transcription b. replication c. translation d. reduplication e. the formation of ribosomes f. proteosynthesis in the M phase g. proteosynthesis in the G1 phase h. condensation of chromosomes 118. Transfer RNA functions in: a. translation b. transcription c. replication d. the transfer of specifically bound amino acids into the nucleus e. the transfer of amino acids to ribosomes f. proteosynthesis in G1 phase g. the formation of ribosomes h. the transfer of genetic information from nucleus to ribosomes 119. The following processes occur in the RNA synthesis: a. RNA-polymerase catalyses joining of nucleotides containing A, C, G, T according to the DNA template b. DNA-polymerase catalyses joining of nucleotides containing A, U, G, C according to the DNA template c. RNA-polymerase catalyses joining of nucleotides containing A, C, G, U according to the DNA template d. RNA-polymerase catalyses joining of nucleotides containing A, C, G, U according to the DNA template, the necessary energy is supplied by the ADP e. RNA-polymerase catalyses joining of nucleotides containing A, C, G, U according to the DNA template, the necessary energy is supplied by the AMP f. RNA-polymerase catalyses the synthesis of RNA in the M phase of the cell cycle g. RNA-polymerase catalyses joining of nucleotides containing A, C,G,U according to the RNA template h. RNA-polymerase catalyses joining of nucleotides containing A, C, G, U according to the DNA template, the necessary energy is supplied by the ATP 120. Primary structure of DNA: a. is the order of nucleotides with G, A,C,U bases b. consists of a linear sequence of nucleotides that are linked together by phosphodiester bonds c. is determined by the sequence of ribonucleotides in both of the strands d. is determined by the sequence of nucleotides with the A, G, C, T bases in the polynucleotide chain e. is bases on identical principle in all of the cells f. is determined by the sequence of ribonucleotides with the A, G, C, T bases in the chain g. consists of a linear sequence of ribonucleotides that are linked together by phosphodiester bonds h. is determined by the complementarity between codons and anticodons 121. The start of translation is specified by the mRNA triplet: a. UAG or AUG b. AUG or AGU c. AUG d. UAA e. AUC f. which encodes methionine g. UGA h. UAG 122. The end of the gene in the DNA coding strand is marked by the triplets: a. TAA, TAT, TGA b. TAA, TAG, TGA c. TTA,TAG,TAA d. TAT, TAG, TGA e. TGA, TAG, TAC f. which do not encode the amino acid g. AAA, TTT, CCC h. which encode amino acids inside the gene 123. The genes for RNA molecules encode: a. the primary structure of regulatory genes b. the sequence of nucleotides of the rRNA molecules c. only the nucleotide sequence of rRNA d. the sequence of nucleotides of the mRNA e. the sequence of nucleotides of tRNA molecules f. the primary structure of ribosomes g. the primary structure of tRNA h. enzymes necessary for the synthesis of RNA 124. Mark the correct sequence of the mRNA which arises by the transcription of template DNA strand with the following sequence CCA GGA CCT AGT CTA: a. CCU GGU CCT UGT CTU b. GGU CCU GGA UCA GAU c. GGT CCT GGU TCU GUT d. GGU CCU GGA TCA GAT e. GGT CCT GGU TCA GAT f. GCT CCT GGU TCU GUT g. CCT GGT CCU TGU CUT h. GGT CCT GCU TCU GUT 125. Cell nucleus is the site of synthesis: a. only mRNA and rRNA b. only mRNA c. proteins d. all of the RNA types e. of polyribonucleotide chains f. ATP molecules necessary for transcription g. ribosomal RNA h. polydeoxyribonucleotide strands by transcription 126. Genetic code: a. is special for different organisms b. contains 64 codons c. is a triplet code d. is used in the translation of genetic information e. is used in the transcription of genetic information f. contains 64 anticodons g. has two start codons h. is degenerate 127. Polypeptide chains: a. are synthesized from mRNA templates b. are specified by codons in ribosomes c. are made up of amino acids d. are synthesized from rRNA templates e. are made up of nucleotides f. are synthesized from DNA templates g. have specific amino acids sequences h. are made using the genetic information stored in the DNA 128. Reverse transcriptase is an enzyme: a. used to generate complementary RNA from an RNA template b. used in a process termed reverse transcription c. catalysing replication of DNA in the prokaryotic cell d. catalysing the synthesis of mRNA e. catalysing the transcription of genetic information from RNA into DNA f. used to generate complementary DNA from RNA template g. which was first discovered in viruses h. which was first discovered in bacteria 129. Degeneracy of the genetic code means that: a. all of the organisms use the same way of encoding genetic information b. each nucleotide is part of several codons c. each nucleotide is part of a single codon d. single amino acid may be coded for by more than one codon e. only four coding letters are necessary for the entry of the genetic information f. there are more codons than coded amino acids g. apart from structural genes it also encodes regulation genes h. the genetic code is redundant 130. Mark the correct statement about tRNA molecule: a. it is double stranded b. it is single stranded c. its structure resembles a clover leaf d. its structure resembles a lime tree leaf e. the end triplet of tRNA arm is called anticodon f. carries genetic information from DNA to the ribosomes g. carries amino acids to the ribosome h. serves as the physical link between the mRNA and the amino acid sequence of proteins 131. Mark the correct statement about mRNA molecule: a. it is double stranded b. it is single stranded c. its structure resembles a clover leaf d. it is translated into protein e. it cannot be found in prokaryotic cells f. it occurs also in prokaryotic cells g. its synthesis is catalysed by DNA polymerase h. it is a template for a protein synthesis 132. Which of the following is true about DNA replication: a. it proceeds in the 5 ́→ 3 ́ direction b. it proceeds in the 3 ́→ 5 ́ direction c. it is catalysed by the RNA polymerase d. only newly synthesized DNA strands are used as templates e. both strands of the parental DNA molecule are used as templates f. only one strand of the parental DNA may serve as a template g. both strands of the original DNA serve as templates h. it is a process of the creation of hydrogen bond between the adjacent nucleotides 133. Mark the incorrect answers: a. replication of plasmids is independent on chromosomal replication b. mitosis consists of two nuclear divisions distinguished as mitosis I and mitosis II c. prokaryotes reproduce asexually d. the ribosomal RNA is synthesized on the ribosomes e. the genome of prokaryotes is usually made up of one chromosome and plasmids f. during S phase the DNA of each chromosome replicates semiconservatively g. primary structure of DNA is given by the sequence of nucleotides h. transfer RNA is generated by the process of translation 134. Transmission of genes into the daughter cells is provided by: a. replication of DNA molecule b. mitotic division c. reduplication of the mRNA d. reduplication of chromosomes e. transcription of the RNA f. conjugation g. translation of the genetic information h. DNA mutations 135. Primary structure of the polypeptide chain is given by: a. the type of the peptide bond b. the spatial orientation of its molecules c. the primary structure of the tRNA d. the primary structure of the mRNA e. the sequence of amino acids in the chain f. the sequence of amino acids in the structural gene g. the strength of the peptide bond h. the sequence of nucleotides in the structural gene 136. DNA molecules can be arranged: a. into nuclear and nucleolar chromosomes and in extra-nuclear chromosomes b. into nuclear and extra-nuclear chromosomes c. into nuclear chromosomes and mitochondrial chromosome in the prokaryotic cells d. only into nuclear chromosomes e. into linear or circular forms f. into the chromatin fibre in the eukaryotic cells g. into the circular form in the mitochondria h. into the circular form in the Golgi apparatus 137. Attachment site for an amino acid in tRNA molecule: a. is the terminal AUG triplet b. is anticodon arm c. is a sequence of some minor bases d. is stop codon e. is the terminal CCA triplet f. is start codon g. is the terminal AGU triplet h. is the terminal CCU triplet 138. mRNA triplet for amino acid methionine is: a. UAA b. UAG c. UGA d. AUG e. CCA f. GGU g. AGC h. AUU 139. Genes for rRNA molecules are usually found: a. in the place of the primary constriction of the chromosome b. in the place of the secondary constriction of the chromosome c. in the area of the satellite d. in ribosomes e. in all the chromosomes f. only in some of the chromosomes g. on the short arms of some of the chromosomes h. on the long arms of the chromosome 140. Mark the correct statement: a. if we know the codon, we know the amino acid b. if we know the amino acid, we always know the codon c. if we know the amino acid, we usually do not know the codon d. each amino acid is encoded by at least 2 codons e. each codon codes for at least two amino acids f. some of the amino acids are encoded only by one codon g. some of the amino acids are encoded by more than four codons h. some of the codons do not encode the amino acid 141. Structural gene: a. may encode a polypeptide chain b. may encode an enzyme c. is controlled by the regulatory gene d. is not transcribed into rRNA e. is transcribed into mRNA f. is any gene with a known primary structure g. determines the sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide chain h. encodes the primary structure of tRNA 142. Expression of genetic information of structural genes: a. occurs in two steps: replication and transcription b. occurs in two steps: transcription and translation c. is the realization of the genetic information d. is a regulation of transcription of the genetic information e. is realized by means of mutations f. occurs during mitosis g. occurs during the M phase h. occurs in the G1 phase 143. Prokaryotic chromosome is: a. formed by two circular DNA molecules b. formed by one circular double-stranded DNA molecule c. located in the nucleus d. placed in the cytoplasm e. chromosome with identical base pairing as in eukaryotic chromosome f. arranged into homologous pair g. formed by a single linear DNA molecule h. made up of circular RNA molecule 144. The founder of the genetics is: a. James D. Watson b. Jan Evangelista Purkyně c. Charles Darwin d. Johan Gregor Mendel e. Louis Pasteur f. Robert Hooke g. Jean Baptiste Lamarck h. Aristotle 145. Karyotype of a male with Down syndrome is: a. 47,XY,+18 b. 47,XY,+13 c. 47,XXX d. 47,XY,+21 e. 47,XX,+21 f. 46,XY,+13 g. 46,XXX h. 46,XY,+22 146. Johann Gregor Mendel: a. first introduced test cross b. discovered the material nature of the determinants of heredity c. stated that some alleles are dominant while others are recessive d. cultivated new species of plants e. precisely defined genotypic and phenotypic ratios of heterozygotes f. proved that each pair of alleles segregate from each other during the formation of gametes g. stated that genes are localised on chromosomes h. showed that the DNA is a carrier of the genetic information 147. The basic genetic characteristic of homozygotes is: a. they have identical karyotype b. they have identical number of genes c. they inherited identical alleles of a given gene from their parents d. they have identical genotype e. they have identical alleles on the given gene locus f. they form the identical number of zygotes g. they have alleles of the given gene in complete linkage h. they form gametes with different alleles of the homozygous gene 148. The cross, in which mating organisms differ in two alleles of a one gene is called: a. backcrossing b. somatic hybridization c. reciprocal crossing d. monohybridism e. cross between relatives f. inbreeding g. dihybridism h. panmixia 149. The basic characteristic of heterozygotes is: a. they have two different alleles of particular gene b. they have different genotype and phenotype c. they do not have identical gene pool d. they are produced by cross of phenotypically different parents e. they inherited different alleles of the given gene from their parents f. they form different zygotes g. they form gametes with different alleles of the heterozygous locus h. they have alleles of the given gene in complete linkage 150. How do we determine the genotype of an individual with dominant trait in the case of complete dominance: a. by the use of test cross b. by the use of reciprocal cross c. by crossing a tested individual with the recessive homozygote d. it cannot be distinguished e. by the analysis of gene linkage f. by the use of molecular-biology methods g. on the basis of phenotypic differences h. on the basis of the crossing-over frequency 151. Which of the following is true about incomplete dominance: a. it is a type of inheritance b. it results in a third phenotype c. it produces offspring with same phenotype as dominant parent d. it refers that the expressed physical trait is a “mixture” of the both alleles e. it means that individuals with different genotypes are phenotypically identical f. it can be recognized after inbreeding g. it usually occurs in the polygenic inheritance of traits h. it produces offspring with phenotype that is a blend of the parental traits 152. What does the codominance mean in the genetics: a. suppression of the dominant allele by the recessive allele from a different locus b. when two different alleles of a specific single-gene trait are both expressed simultaneously c. a special case of intermediate inheritance, when the dominant allele is not manifested in the phenotype of heterozygote d. a case of inheritance, when both alleles of a one gene are manifested equally in the phenotype e. a special case of intermediate inheritance, when the recessive allele is not manifested at all in the phenotype of heterozygote f. a case when the alleles of the given gene do not suppress each other g. a case when the trait is determined by two co-operative genes h. a case when the trait manifestation is also influenced by non-genetic factors 153. Monogenic trait in the diploid organism is determined: a. by two genes, one from the mother, one from the father b. by two alleles of a single gene, one from the mother, one from the father c. by two alleles of different loci, one from the father, one from the mother d. by two allelic pairs, one from the father, one from the mother e. by two dominant or recessive genes f. by one dominant allele in every case g. by two loci, one from the mother and the other one from the father h. by one set of chromosomes 154. Which of the following genetic schemes represent the cross between two recessive homozygotes: a. AA x AA b. AA x aa c. dd x dd d. AABb x aabb e. bbccddee x bbccddee f. AAbb x aaBB g. AAbbCC x aaBBcc h. AaBbCc x AaBbCc 155. Which of the following genetic schemes represent the cross between two heterozygotes: a. Cc x Cc b. Aa x aa c. AABB x AABb d. AaBb x AaBb e. AaBbCc x AaBbCc f. AaBbCC x AaBbCc g. ccddee x CDDEE h. aa x AA 156. Which of the following notations do not contradict the Mendel’s laws (parents – progeny): a. AA x aa – AA, Aa, aa b. AA x Aa – AA, AA, Aa, Aa c. Dd x Dd – DD, Dd, Dd, dd d. Cc x cc – Cc, Cc, cc, cc e. AABB x AABb – AABB, AABb, AaBB, AaBb f. aaBB x AAbb – AaBb, AAbb, aaBB g. aa x aa – aa h. aa x aa – aa, Aa, AA 157. Which of the following notations do not correspond with the Mendel’s laws (parents – progeny): a. Aa x aa – Aa, Aa, aa, aa b. AA x aa – AA, Aa, aa c. bb x bb – bb d. ee x ee – EE, Ee e. AABB x AABb – AABB, AABb, AaBB, AaBb f. DD x Dd – DD, DD, Dd, Dd g. AA x Aa – AA, Aa, Aa, aa h. aaBBccDD x AAbbCCdd – AaBbCcDd, AaBbCCDd, AaBbccDd 158. What is true about recessive allele in the case of complete dominance: a. it has the identical quality in both heterozygote (Aa) and homozygote (aa) b. it has a different quality in heterozygote (Aa) than in homozygote (aa) c. it does not influence the phenotypic variability in heterozygotes d. it is not influenced by the environment e. it has different properties in the gamete produced by the heterozygote than in the gamete of homozygote f. it is always influenced by the environment in homozygotes g. the trait controlled by a recessive allele manifests only if the allele is present in the homozygous arrangement h. its expression is masked by the presence of dominant allele for the same trait 159. In a cross between two heterozygotes (Aa x Aa): a. offspring with dominant and recessive phenotypes are produced in certain ratio b. dominant homozygotes occur more frequently than heterozygotes among the offspring c. gender ratio may be identical among the offspring d. proportion of dominant and recessive homozygotes is the same among the offspring e. recessive homozygotes occur more frequently among the offspring f. gender of the parents does not influence the phenotypes of the offspring g. heterozygotes occur more frequently than dominant homozygotes among the offspring h. homozygotes cannot occur among the offspring 160. The cross: a. is asexual reproduction of two organisms b. is sexual reproduction of two selected individuals of a certain species c. is one of the basic methods of genetic research d. between relatives is called inbreeding e. was used as the method of breeding for the first time by J. G. Mendel f. is an important process in the development of the species g. is one of the modes of the production of clones h. is one of the basic methods of breeding 161. What is characteristic of a monohybrid cross: a. only three different types of cross are possible b. if both parents are different homozygotes, they produce an identical type of gametes c. in a cross between heterozygotes, three genotypes are possible in the offspring d. in a cross between heterozygote and recessive homozygote, two phenotypes occur in the offspring e. in a cross between two identical homozygotes, a pure-breeding line occurs in the progeny f. basic knowledge and rules derived from monohybrid cross may be used in the human genetics g. offspring of two different homozygotes are genotypically and phenotypically uniform h. offspring of two different homozygotes create two phenotypic groups 162. In monohybridism, heterozygotes form: a. identical gametes with prevalence of the dominant allele b. two types of gametes c. gametes containing only the dominant or recessive allele of the gene d. gametes with Aa and aA alleles e. one half of gametes with the dominant and one half with the recessive allele f. gametes with AA and aa alleles g. one type of gametes with Aa alleles h. gametes with the dominant and recessive of allele in the proportion of 3:1 163. Which notation describes the parental generation of monohybrid cross: a. aa x aa b. AA x aa c. aa x Aa d. AA x Aa e. AAbb x AABB f. Aa x Aa g. AABB x aabb h. AaBb x AaBb 164. Specify the genetic scheme of cross between two different homozygotes: a. BB x cc b. Aa x Aa c. AA x aa d. aa x Aa e. AAbb x aaBB f. AABb x Aabb g. AABB x AABB h. bb x BB 165. The trait exhibits incomplete dominance. Individuals of the F1 generation resulting from monohybrid cross are: a. phenotypically identical, but they have different genotypes b. phenotypically and genotypically identical c. phenotypically identical to the one parent d. different from one another e. heterozygous f. uniform g. different from both of their parents h. phenotypically identical to both parents 166. The monohybrid cross between two identical homozygotes produces: a. phenotypically and genotypically uniform individuals b. one half of individuals with the dominant trait and one half of individuals with the recessive trait c. individuals with identical quality of trait and genotype d. genotypically uniform, but phenotypically different individuals e. phenotypically uniform heterozygote individuals f. a pure-breeding line g. two categories of different homozygotes h. only homozygous individuals 167. Mendel’s laws are based on the assumptions that: a. the case in point is monogenic heredity b. one gene encodes one trait c. target genes are localised on sex chromosomes d. target genes are linked e. target genes are localised on one chromosome f. target genes are localised on different autosomes g. if more than one trait is analysed, each of them is determined by the gene localised on different chromosome h. target genes are localised on the X chromosome 168. Genotypic ratio: a. is the proportion of genotypes among the offspring produced by a particular cross b. is the proportion of individual properties or traits among the offspring produced by a particular cross c. is always identical with the phenotypic ratio d. may be identical with the phenotypic ratio e. is 1:2:1 in F2 generation of monohybrid cross and complete dominance f. is 1:2:1 in F2 generation of monohybrid cross and incomplete dominance g. is 9:3:3:1 in F2 generation of dihybrid cross and complete dominance h. is 3:1 in F2 generation of monohybrid cross and complete dominance 169. What is true about the genetic cross Aa x Aa involving complete dominance: a. parents can produce 3 types of gametes - AA, Aa, aa b. parents can produce only 1 type of gametes - Aa c. parents can produce 2 types of gametes - A, a d. none of the offspring can be recessive homozygote e. some offspring can receive both recessive alleles f. more offspring will have dominant trait than recessive trait g. smaller number of offspring will have dominant trait than recessive trait h. offspring will be uniform and heterozygous 170. What is true about the genetic cross AA x aa involving complete dominance: a. recessive homozygote cannot occur in the progeny b. dominant homozygote cannot occur in the progeny c. progeny resemble the parent with the dominant trait d. progeny resemble the parent with the recessive trait e. progeny will be uniform and heterozygous f. progeny will be uniform and dominant homozygous g. individual with the recessive trait may occur in the progeny h. there will be only individuals with the dominant trait in the progeny 171. What is the expected number of phenotypes in F2 generation resulting from monohybrid cross in the case of incomplete dominance: a. 2 b. 1 c. 23 d. 3 e. smaller than the number of genotypes f. equal to the number of genotypes g. more than the number of genotypes h. 32 172. What is true about the progeny resulting from the monohybrid cross between two dominant homozygotes: a. no splitting of phenotypes occurs b. every member of the F1 generation is dominant homozygote c. splitting of phenotypes and genotypes occurs in the F2 generation d. phenotypically and genotypically identical individuals occur e. proportion of homozygotes and heterozygotes is 1:1 f. trait is manifested stronger than with their parents g. members of the F1 generation are uniformly heterozygous h. recessive homozygous individuals occur only in the F2 generation 173. Consider complete dominance and cross between homozygous dominant and heterozygous parents (AA x Aa). Mark the correct answer: a. progeny are phenotypically identical b. phenotypic ratio among progeny is 1:1 c. phenotypic ratio among progeny is 3:1 d. progeny are genotypically uniform e. no splitting of phenotypes occurs in the progeny f. one fourth of the progeny have a recessive phenotype g. one half of the progeny are dominant homozygotes h. one half of the progeny are heterozygotes 174. What is true about the genetic cross between two different homozygotes (AA x aa) involving incomplete dominance: a. phenotypic ratio is 3:1 b. all of the progeny are heterozygotes c. phenotypic ratio is 1:1 d. progeny are genotypically identical e. progeny are phenotypically identical, they differ by genotypes f. progeny are phenotypically identical with the dominant parent g. all offspring are phenotypically identical and identical with the dominant parent h. all offspring are phenotypically identical and different from both parents 175. Phenotypic ratio of 1:1:1:1 is valid for: a. reciprocal cross between heterozygotes and complete dominance b. cross between dominant homozygote and heterozygote and complete dominance c. cross between double heterozygote and recessive homozygote in the case of complete dominance d. cross between two double heterozygotes and complete dominance e. testcross in dihybridism f. cross between double heterozygote and recessive homozygote in the case of incomplete dominance g. dihybrid cross and the gene linkage h. extra-chromosomal inheritance 176. Recessive homozygote may result from the cross: a. Aa x AA b. AA x AA c. aaBb x aaBb d. Aa x Aa e. aa x Aa f. AA x aa g. aa x aa h. AaBb x AABB 177. Assume that one allele is completely dominant over the other. What would be the expected genotypic ratio of possible offspring from the cross of Aa x Aa: a. 1AA:2aa:1Aa, 25% of individuals will have a recessive trait b. 1AA:2Aa:1aa, 75% of individuals will have a dominant trait c. 1AA:2Aa:1aa, 50% of individuals will have a dominant trait d. 1:2:1 e. 1AA:2Aa:1aa, 50% of individuals will have a recessive trait f. 1AA:2Aa:1aa, 50 % of individuals will have an intermediate trait g. 3: 1 h. 1: 1 178. A cross between two heterozygotes for a single trait that displays complete dominance is predicted to give a ratio: a. 1:1 genotypic and 1:2:1 phenotypic b. 3:1 phenotypic and 1:1 genotypic c. 1:2:1 genotypic and 3:1 phenotypic d. 3:1 genotypic and 1:2:1 phenotypic e. 1:1 genotypic and 1:1 phenotypic f. 1:2:1 both genotypic and phenotypic g. 9:3:3:1 phenotypic h. 1:1 genotypic and 3:1 phenotypic 179. A cross between heterozygote and recessive homozygote for a single trait that displays complete dominance is predicted to give: a. two phenotypes in the ratio of 1:1 b. uniform progeny c. all individuals with the same phenotype d. 3:1 phenotypic ratio e. 50% heterozygotes and 50% recessive homozygotes f. genotypically different, but phenotypically identical progeny g. 75 % of progeny with the dominant phenotype h. 50% heterozygotes and 50% dominant homozygotes 180. In the progeny of two heterozygotes with a single trait that displays complete dominance, the proportion of dominant homozygotes is: a. 50% of progeny b. 75% of progeny c. 25% of progeny d. 1/3 of progeny e. 1/2 of individuals with the dominant phenotype f. 1/4 of individuals with the dominant trait g. 1/3 of individuals with the dominant trait h. 2/3 of individuals with the dominant trait 181. A cross between two heterozygotes (Aa x Aa) produces the following genotypic ratio: a. 1:2:1 b. 1:3 c. 3:1 d. 1:1 e. 2:1 f. 1:2:1, dominant and recessive homozygotes are equally represented in progeny g. 3:1, heterozygotes occur more frequently than homozygotes in progeny h. 3:1, dominant homozygotes occur more frequently than recessive homozygotes in progeny 182. What is the proportion of heterozygotes among offspring in a monohybrid cross Aa x Aa: a. 75 % b. 50 % c. 25 % d. 3:1 e. 2:1 f. 1/3 g. 2/3 h. 1/2 183. Dihybrid cross is a cross: a. between two heterozygotes AaBB with the phenotypic ratio of 9:3:3:1 b. between two heterozygotes AaBb with the phenotypic ratio of 9:3:3:1 c. between two heterozygotes AaBb with the genotypic ratio of 9:3:3:1 d. when we study the heredity of two different pairs of alleles e. between two homozygotes AAbb x aaBB f. when the individuals differ in two traits g. between two homozygotes AA x bb h. between two homozygotes AABB x aabb 184. What is the phenotypic ratio in the progeny of the heterozygote crossed with the recessive homozygote in dihybridism: a. 2:2:1:1, if the genes demonstrate complete linkage b. 1:1:1:1, if the studied genes assort independently c. 9:3:1:1 d. 1:1, if the studied genes assort independently e. 3:3:1:1 f. 1:1, if the genes demonstrate complete linkage g. 3:1, if the genes demonstrate complete linkage h. 3:1, if the studied genes assort independently 185. What is the phenotypic ratio in the F2 generation in dihybridism and complete dominance, if the genes observed are not linked: a. 12:4:2 b. 9:3:1 c. 9:3:3:1 d. 1:1:1:1 e. 3:3:1:1 f. 15:1 g. 3:1 h. 1:2:1 186. Which cross will generate the phenotypic ratio of 3:3:1:1 on the assumption of complete dominance: a. AaBb x AABb b. AAbb x AABb c. AABb x aaBB d. AaBb x Aabb e. AaBb x aaBb f. aaBb x Aabb g. AABB x AaBb h. aaBb x AaBB 187. If we do not find the phenotypic ratio of 9:3:3:1 in the F2 generation of a dihybrid cross, the reason for this may be: a. small number of the progeny assessed b. inbreeding c. gene shift d. gene linkage e. spontaneous mutations f. decreased viability of a genotype g. incomplete dominance of one trait h. sex-linked trait 188. Assume complete dominance. If we find 4 phenotypic groups in the F2 generation of dihybrid cross, how many of them will have the recessive phenotype only for one trait: a. not a single one b. only one c. two, as with monohybridism d. three e. two, those that will be homozygous for that trait f. two, those that will be equally represented g. one, that will have the highest proportion h. one, that will be the least numerous 189. Dihybrid cross examines the transmission of: a. two alleles: A, a b. two independent traits c. one pair of alleles d. two pairs of alleles: A/a; B/b e. one dominant trait f. identical alleles of two independent genes g. two different alleles of one gene h. two genes 190. All possible types of gametes formed by dihybrid (CcDd) are: a. CD, CD, Cc, Cd b. CD, Cd, cd, cD c. CC, DD, cd, Dc d. Cc, Dd, cd, CD e. cd, Dd, CD, cD f. CC, Cc, DD, Dd g. CD, cd, CD, cd h. Cc, CD, Cd, cD 191. The organism with the genotype AABb produces: a. two types of gametes, because of dihybridism b. two types of gametes: AA, Bb c. two types of gametes, due to heterozygosity only for one trait d. 50 % of gametes AB and 50 % of gametes Bb e. three types of gametes f. four types of gametes, because of dihybridism g. three types of gametes, in the case of intermediarity h. one type of gametes 192. Double heteroyzgotes can form: a. gametes - AA, Aa, BB, ab b. 16 phenotypes in the F2 generation c. 10/16 of heterozygotes in the F2 generation d. 4 phenotypic groups in the F2 generation in the case of complete dominance e. 4 types of gametes f. 3/4 of heterozygotes at least in one locus in the F2 generation g. 9 different genotypes in the F2 generation h. 2 different genotypes in the F1 generation 193. How many different types of gametes can trihybrid (AaBbCc) produce: a. 3 b. 32 c. 6 d. 8 e. 4 f. 23 g. 9 h. 2 194. How many different genotypes can be found in the F2 generation of dihybrid cross: a. 12 b. 32 c. 23 d. 16 e. 9 f. 8 g. 4 h. 2 195. What progeny result of a cross between two double heterozygotes on the assumption of complete dominance: a. 4 types of homozygotes in the F2 generation b. only heterozygotes in the F2 generation c. only homozygotes identical with one of the parents d. 1/16 of homozygotes in the F2 generation e. 1/16 of double recessive homozygotes in the F2 generation f. 3 phenotypic categories in the F2 generation g. 1/4 of double homozygotes in the F2 generation h. uniform homozygotes in the F1 generation 196. The relationship between alleles IA and IB of the ABO blood-group system is: a. dominant b. recessive c. codominant d. both alleles are equally strong and neither of them dominates over each other e. neutral f. independent from external factors g. polygenic h. intermediate 197. Which of the following are Mendelian traits in human: a. ABO blood group and body height b. IQ and body height c. galactosemia d. all inborn developmental defects e. traits determined by a single-gene f. diabetes g. neurosis h. phenylketonuria 198. Heterozygote is an individual: a. with two different alleles of the given gene b. with two identical alleles of the given gene c. with two different genes of the allelic pair d. with a different quality of alleles of gene loci e. with two identical alleles of the gene f. with different sex chromosomes g. with more than two alleles of the given gene h. with two different genes 199. Rough hair of guinea pigs (R) is dominant over the smooth one (r), the black colour of the hair (B) is dominant over the white one (b). There also were individuals with smooth white hair in the progeny of the white smooth-haired female guinea pig and the black rough-haired male guinea pig. What was the genotype of the male: a. RRBb b. RRbb c. RrBb d. rrbb e. RrBB f. Rrbb g. rrBb h. RRBB 200. Cross of the white-eyed male drosophila and the homozygous red-eyed female (the red colour of eyes is dominant over the white one) produces following progeny: a. all of the females and males with red eyes b. one half red-eyed females and all of the males with red eyes c. uniform red-eyed progeny d. all of the females with red-eyes and one half red-eyed males e. one half of the females and males with red eyes f. one half white-eyed males and all of the females with red eyes g. uniform white-eyed progeny h. 3/4 of the progeny with red eyes and 1/4 with white eyes 201. Cross of the white-eyed male drosophila and the heterozygous red-eyed female (the red colour of eyes is dominant over the white one) produces following progeny: a. all of the males with red eyes and one half of females with white eyes b. one half of females with white eyes and one half of males with white eyes c. one half of females with white eyes and all of the males with red eyes d. all of the females with red eyes and one half of males with white eyes e. one half of progeny with red eyes and one half with white ones f. all of the females with white eyes and all of the males with red eyes g. uniform red-eyed progeny h. uniform white-eyed progeny 202. In case of independent assortment of genes: a. Mendel’s laws do not hold true b. only parental types of gametes are formed in every case c. Mendel’s laws hold true d. heterozygote AaBb forms four types of gametes: AB, Ab, aB, ab e. heterozygote AaBb forms four types of gametes: AA, Aa, Bb, bb f. heterozygote AaBb forms only two types of gametes: AB, ab g. heterozygote AaBb forms two types of gametes: Aa, Bb h. heterozygote AaBb forms only two types of gametes: Ab, aB 203. Qualitative traits in humans are usually: a. polygenic b. determined by a single-gene c. determined by the genes, the effects of which are summed up d. determined by one gene of major effect e. determined by several genes which are in linkage f. autosomal g. determined by a large number of genes from different loci h. determined by the genes of minor effect 204. Which of the statement below is true: a. genotype is determined by the phenotype b. phenotype is determined by the genotype c. genome is a genetic material of an organism, including all of its genes d. genome is a set of alleles and genes in the organism e. genome is a set of the genetic information in a population f. gene pool and the external environment determine the phenotype g. gene pool is a set of the genetic information in a population h. genotype has no influence on the phenotype of the individual 205. Assume that the colour of the eyes is determined by one gene with two alleles. Brown colour of the eyes is dominant over the blue one. The probability that a child with blue eyes will be born to two brown- eyed parents is: a. 0%, if both parents are homozygotes b. 100% c. 50%, if both parents are heterozygotes d. 25%, if both parents are heterozygotes e. 75%, if one of the parents is a dominant homozygote and the other one is heterozygote f. 25%, if one of the maternal grandparents and one of the paternal grandparents had blue eyes g. 50%, if one of the maternal grandparents and one of the paternal grandparents had blue eyes h. 0%, they can’t have a child with blue eyes 206. If the frequency of a dominant phenotype in a stable population is 84%, the frequency of recessive allele in that population is: a. 16% b. 0.16 c. 4% d. 0.04% e. 0.4 f. 40% g. 81% h. 0.81 207. If the frequency of a recessive allele in a stable population is 7%, the frequency of dominant allele in that population is: a. 14% b. 0.14 c. 49% d. 0.49 e. 0.93 f. 93% g. 64% h. 0.64 208. If the frequency of a recessive allele in a stable population is 40%, the frequency of dominant homozygotes in that population is: a. 16% b. 0.16 c. 0.36 d. 36% e. 0.48 f. 48% g. 0.64 h. 64% 209. If the frequency of a recessive allele in a stable population is 40%, the frequency of heterozygotes in that population is: a. 16% b. 0.16 c. 0.36 d. 36% e. 0.48 f. 48% g. 64% h. 0.64 210. A point mutation that changes a codon specifying an amino acid into a stop codon is called a: a. missense mutation b. nonsense mutation c. frameshift mutation d. translocation e. deletion f. addition g. coding mutation h. noncoding mutation 211. A point mutation that changes a codon specifying an amino acid to different codon that specifies the same amino acids is called: a. missense mutation b. nonsense mutation c. silent mutation d. translocation e. deletion f. addition g. coding mutation h. noncoding mutation 212. Which of the following diseases results from a numerical chromosome aberration: a. Duchenne muscular dystrophy b. hemophilia A c. hemophilia B d. sickle cell anemia e. Turner syndrome f. Down syndrome g. Patau syndrome h. syndrome of dry eye 213. The normal human karyotype contains: a. 23 haploid sets of chromosome b. 46 diploid sets of chromosomes c. 46 chromosomes d. 22 pairs of autosomes and 2 sex chromosomes e. 22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of sex chromosomes f. 2 haploid sets of gonosomes g. 23 pairs of gonosomes h. 2 haploid sets of chromosomes 214. The morphological subtype of chromosome according to position of centromere is: a. metacentric b. submetacentric c. acrocentric d. telocentric e. telomeric f. metameric g. acromeric h. submetameric 215. Autosomes are: a. not a sex-determining chromosomes b. unpaired chromosomes c. only found in somatic cells d. only found in diploid cells e. somatic chromosomes f. chromosomes that do not determine the sex of mammals g. chromosomes responsible for sex determination of mammals h. chromosomes that reside in the nucleus 216. Human chromosomes are classified according to size and shape into: a. 3 groups b. 4 groups c. 5 groups d. 6 groups e. 7 groups f. 8 groups g. 9 groups h. 10 groups 217. Which of the following statement is true about a somatic mutation: a. it is not transmitted on to offspring b. a mutation occurs in gametes c. it is present in all cells of an organism d. it is transmitted on to offspring e. it is only present in daughter cells that arise from mutant cell f. it is not present in sex cells g. it is present only on somatic chromosomes h. can occur in any of the cells of the body except the germ cells 218. Which of the following statement is true about a germline mutation: a. it is not transmitted on to offspring b. a mutation occurs in gametes c. it is present in all cells of an organism d. it is transmitted on to offspring e. it is present in sex cells f. it is not present in sex cells g. it is present only on somatic chromosomes h. can occur in any of the cells of the body except the germ cells 219. Which of the following is a physical mutagen: a. ionizing radiation b. ultraviolet radiation c. alkylating agents d. benzene e. viruses f. arsenic g. cadmium h. nickel 220. Which of the following is a chemical mutagen: a. ionizing radiation b. ultraviolet radiation c. alkylating agent d. benzene e. virus f. arsenic g. cadmium h. antioxidant 221. What is true about gene linkage: a. Mendel studied the gene linkage in the chromosomes of pea plants b. genes on one chromosome form one linkage group c. two genes located on different pairs of homologous chromosomes are linked genes d. it is the tendency of genes closely located on one chromosome to be segregated to the same gamete e. it is the tendency of genes closely located on one chromosome to be transmitted together to the next generation f. it is the association of genes located on the different chromosomes g. centimorgan is the unit of gene linkage that refers to the distance between two gene loci h. Thomas Hunt Morgan studied the gene linkage in the chromosomes of Drosophila 222. What is true about polyploidy: a. it is the occurrence of one or more extra sets of chromosomes b. it is the occurrence of one or more extra sets of genes c. it is the is the occurrence of one or more extra chromatids d. it is the specific type of crossing over e. it is the condition when organism has three or more haploid sets of chromosomes f. polyploidy is common in plants g. polyploidy is common in humans h. it is the occurrence of one or more extra chromosomes 223. What are the assumptions of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium: a. only asexual reproduction occurs b. mating is random c. population size is large d. population size is small e. there is no migration, mutation or selection in population f. free migration is allowed g. no immigration into or emigration out of population h. natural selection is not acting on the alleles under consideration 224. The chromosomal determination of male sex in mammals is: a. dependent upon the presence of heterochromosomes b. XY c. XX d. X0 e. XXX f. similar to drosophila g. Y0 h. YY 225. In the case of monogenic X-linked inheritance, the phenotypic expression of the gene is dependent: a. on only one allele in women b. on the recombination frequency c. on person's gender d. on extrachromosomal inheritance e. on the quality of allele f. size of X chromosome g. on the quality of genes on the Y chromosome in heterogametic sex h. on the gene linkage 226. An example of X-linked trait in a human is: a. eye colour b. brachydactyly c. daltonism d. lipid metabolism disorder e. albinism f. diabetes g. hemophilia h. body weight 227. In the marriage of the daltonic man and dominant homozygous woman for this trait we can expect: a. all of their sons being colourblind b. all of their children being healthy c. half daughters being carriers and 25% of sons being healthy d. 50% of healthy sons and healthy daughters e. all daughters being carriers f. half of children being colourblind regardless of gender g. all sons being healthy and half daughters being carriers h. all of their sons being healthy 228. Y chromosome: a. is usually larger than X chromosome b. is nor present in some species c. belongs to gonosomes d. is present in the half of female gametes in mammals e. is present in all individuals of a certain species f. contains fewer genes than X chromosome in a human g. is found in somatic cells of female birds h. occurs only in homogametic individuals 229. The genes that are located on the sex chromosomes can be said to be: a. gonosomes b. heterochromosomes c. sex-linked genes d. sex chromosomes e. autosomes f. somatic chromosomes g. linked if they are on the same chromosome h. necessary not only for the expression of sexual traits 230. In the human, male sex cells have: a. half the number of chromosomes and both gonosomes b. haploid number of autosomes and chromosomes XX c. haploid number of gonosomes and autosomes d. half the number of chromosomes, including X or Y heterochromosome e. unequal gonosomes equipment f. more frequent occurrence of the Y chromosome g. many cellular organelles and nutrients h. a locomotive organelle 231. Holandric inheritance: a. determines the inheritance of hemophilia b. determines the inheritance of daltonism c. determines the inheritance of eye color d. determines the inheritance of the testis determing factor e. manifests when the gene allele is located on the homologous part of X chromosome f. manifests when the gene allele is located on the non-homologous part of X chromosome g. manifests when the gene allele is located on the homologous part of Y chromosome h. manifests when the gene allele is located on the non-homologous part of Y chromosome 232. Mark the correct statement regarding daltonism: a. woman can only have two different genotypes b. healthy woman can have two different genotypes c. it is X-linked trait, and therefore the women cannot be sick d. woman may have a genotype XDXd, she is a healthy carrier e. woman may have a XDXd genotype, she is a carrier and affected with daltonism f. it is X-linked trait, and therefore men are more frequently affected with disease g. it is kind of trait with holandric inheritance h. trait is never transmitted from father to his son 233. Mark the correct statement regarding hemophilia: a. woman can only have two different genotypes b. healthy woman can have two different genotypes c. it is X-linked trait, and therefore the women cannot be sick d. woman may have a genotype XHXh, she is a healthy carrier e. woman may have a XHXh genotype, she is a carrier and affected with hemophilia f. it is X-linked trait, and therefore men are more frequently affected with disease g. it is kind of trait with holandric inheritance h. trait is never transmitted from father to his son 234. Chondrocytes are: a. fibrous cells b. cartilage cells c. bone cells d. connective tissue cells e. collagen cells f. located in intervertebral discs g. located in tendons h. located in joint capsules 235. The approximate number of human bones is: a. 400 b. 600 c. 200 d. 180 e. 100 f. 230 g. 660 h. 300 236. According to the shape the bones can be: a. spongy b. thin c. flat d. short e. long f. compound g. thick h. simple 237. The longest and the strongest bone in human body is named: a. hip bone b. thigh bone c. upper arm bone d. backbone e. sternum f. femur g. tibia h. scapula 238. The largest and the most complex joint in human body is named: a. shoulder joint b. hip joint c. ankle d. articulation between femur, tibia and fibula e. articulation between thigh bone and hip bone f. articulation between thigh bone, fibula and patella g. knee joint h. articulation between thigh bone, tibia and patella 239. Joint surfaces of the hip joint are covered by: a. fibrocartilage b. elastic cartilage c. hyaline cartilage d. cartilage, which is formed by fibrocytes e. collagen cartilage f. cartilage, which is formed by osteocytes g. cartilage, which is formed by chondrocytes h. hyaline cartilage, which is present also in epiglottis 240. Epiphysis is: a. small endocrine gland b. rounded end of the long bone c. rounded end of the breastbone d. extended terminal portion of the long bone e. pineal body f. midsection of the long bone g. gland producing melanin h. intermediate lobe of the pituitary gland 241. Periosteum in humans: a. covers inside of the joints b. covers outer surface of the bones c. supports and innervate the bone d. enables bone to grow in thickness e. enables bone to grow in length f. covers the whole bone except of the joint surfaces g. covers the whole bone including the joint surfaces h. covers inner surface of the bones 242. Organic component of human bones: a. is named as ossein b. decreases with age c. constitutes approximately 90 % of the bone’s mass d. is located in the bone marrow e. enables flexibility of the bones f. constitutes 25 – 30 % of the bone intercellular mass in adulthood g. is lower in newborns in comparison with adults h. constitutes 50 – 55 % of the bone intercellular mass in adulthood 243. The growth plate of human bones: a. enables bone to grow in thickness b. joins the true ribs each other c. enables bone to grow in length d. closes, when growth is complete e. is located between diaphysis and epiphysis of the bone f. is fibrous tissue incorporated in the bone tissue g. is located between the ends and the body of the long bones in a growth period of an individual h. contains chondrocytes which can divide by mitosis 244. The cavity of the long bones: a. comprises the periosteum b. comprises the bone marrow c. may comprise fat d. is empty e. comprises fibrocytes f. comprises bone fluid g. is obvious place of blood cells formation h. comprises the bone marrow, which changes its consistence during ontogenesis 245. On human spine we can distinguish: a. cervical lordosis, thoracic kyphosis, lumbar lordosis and sacral kyphosis b. cervical kyphosis, thoracic lordosis, lumbar kyphosis and sacral lordosis c. curvatures, which make it flexible d. two convex curvatures and two concave curvatures e. convex and concave curvatures, which silence impacts f. cervical and thoracic lordosis, lumbar and sacral kyphosis g. cervical lordosis, thoracic kyphosis, lumbar kyphosis and sacral lordosis h. scoliosis – moderate lateral curvature 246. Which bones can be joined by the cartilage: a. the right and the left hip bones b. the sacral vertebrae after the age of 20s c. the occipital bone and the sphenoid bone until the age of 18s d. in the tailbone e. the first and the second cervical vertebrae joined by the intervertebral disc f. the hip bone and sacrum g. flat bones of the skull h. in a simple joint 247. Which bones can fuse or ossify together: a. right and the left hip bones b. sacral vertebrae c. frontal bone and the parietal bones d. pubis, ilium and ischium e. intervertebral discs f. hip bone and sacrum g. bones of the skull joined per sutures h. cervical vertebrae 248. Which vertebrae are fused together in humans: a. atlas and axis b. tailbone vertebrae c. sacral vertebrae d. 4. and 5. thoracic vertebrae e. lumbar vertebrae in adulthood f. sacral vertebrae, 2nd – 5th fuse between 14 - 20 years of age, the first fuses with them between 20 - 30 years of age g. 5 sacral vertebrae into sacrum and 4 – 5 tailbone vertebrae into coccyx h. all of them in the old age as a result of osteoporosis 249. The number of lumbar vertebrae is: a. 5, they form lumbar kyphosis b. 5 c. 5, they form lumbar lordosis d. 5, they fuse into lumbar bone e. 5, there are intervertebral discs between them f. 5, they are the most massive vertebrae g. 5, they have joints connecting them to the ribs h. 5, the first two have atypical structure 250. The number of sacral vertebrae is: a. 6 b. 5 c. 12 d. 7 e. 4 - 5 f. 5, they fuse into tailbone g. 8 h. 5, they fuse into sacrum 251. A complete thorax comprises: a. 12 thoracic vertebrae, 7 pairs of true ribs, which are joined to the sternum directly by the fibrous connective tissue b. sternum and the ribs c. 12 thoracic vertebrae, 14 pairs of ribs and sternum d. thoracic vertebrae, the ribs and sternum e. 12 thoracic vertebrae and sternum f. 12 thoracic vertebrae, 12 pairs of ribs and sternum g. thoracic vertebrae, the ribs, sternum and scapula h. 12 thoracic vertebrae, 7 pairs of true ribs, 5 pairs of false ribs and sternum 252. The number of the ribs in humans is: a. 5 pairs of true ribs, 7 pairs of false ribs b. 7 pairs of true ribs, 5 pairs of false ribs c. 24 d. 12 pairs e. 5 pairs joined and 7 pairs not joined with the sternum f. 7 pairs of true ribs, which are joined with the sternum directly by fibrous connective tissue and 5 false ribs g. 7 pairs of true ribs, which have joint coupling with the sternum, 3 pairs of false ribs and 2 pairs of free ribs h. 6 pairs of true ribs and 6 pairs of false ribs 253. A cartilage covering the joint surfaces of the hip joint is: a. elastic b. fibrous c. hyaline d. gelatinous e. including chondrocytes f. including tiny collagen fibres g. including mainly osteocytes h. including fibrocytes and intercellular matter 254. In adults, the red bone marrow can be found in: a. the cavity of the long bones b. in the heads of the long bones c. in the bodies of vertebrae d. in the sternum e. in the ribs f. in some short and flat bones g. in the articulation cartilage of the long bones h. in the marrow cavity of the thigh bone 255. Which bones are joined in the skull: a. zygomatic bone and parietal bone b. sphenoid bone and frontal bone c. parietal bone and occipital bone d. frontal bone and parietal bone e. temporal bone and nasal bone f. temporal bone and occipital bone g. frontal bone and occipital bone h. temporal bone and frontal bone 256. Facial skeleton does not comprise: a. nasal bone b. lacrimal bone c. vomer d. zygomatic bone e. petrous part of the temporal bone f. frontal bone g. temporal bone h. sphenoid bone 257. The skeleton of lower limb comprises: a. sacral bone b. radius c. hip bone d. 5 metacarpal bones e. patella f. clavicle g. fibula h. tibia 258. Complete knee joint in man comprises: a. femur and patella b. tibia, fibula and patella c. patella, tibia and femur d. femur, fibula and patella e. femur, tibia and kneecap f. femur and tibia g. femur, tibia, fibula and patella h. femur, patella and kneecap 259. The largest and the most complex joint in man is the: a. hip joint b. thigh joint c. shoulder joint d. knee joint e. elbow joint f. mandibular joint g. carpal joint h. maxillary joint 260. The skeleton of the upper limb: a. comprises highly movable joints b. includes the most massive and the longest bone of the human body c. includes the shoulder girdle containing clavicle and scapula d. has different basic structure as the skeleton of the lower limb e. has the same basic structure as the skeleton of the lower limb f. carries the whole weight of the body, so its bones are very strong g. is adapted for material handling and fingerwork, so its joints are very movable h. includes the shoulder girdle and the skeleton of free part of the upper limb 261. Complete human skeleton includes: a. 5 tarsal bones b. 7 thoracic vertebrae c. 16 carpal bones d. 10 metacarpal bones e. 14 tarsal bones f. 12 ribs g. 5 lumbar vertebrae h. 5 carpal bones 262. Shoulder girdle involves: a. scapula, clavicle and humerus b. scapula and clavicle c. scapula and shoulder joint d. humerus and clavicle e. shoulder blade and collarbone f. free part of the upper limb g. ulna and radius h. humerus and scapula 263. Which is the most movable joint in human body: a. knee joint b. shoulder joint c. elbow joint d. juncture of scapula and clavicle e. hip joint f. tarsal joint g. carpal joint h. juncture of humerus and scapula 264. Scoliosis is a disease: a. causing a higher risk of the bones fractures b. of the spine c. of the lower limbs d. of the upper limbs e. caused by a low density of the bones f. occurring in women in menopause g. causing that the person ́s spine has an abnormal sideways curve h. caused by morphological and functional asymmetry of human body 265. The muscles drawing a limb away from the median plane of the body are named as: a. synergists b. antagonists c. fixators d. neutralizers e. abductors f. adductors g. extensors h. flexors 266. Synergists are: a. muscles which perform the reversal movements b. muscles which perform the same set of joint motions c. adductors and abductors d. flexors and extensors e. radial and ulnar flexors of the carpus f. four-headed muscle of the thigh and two-headed muscle of the thigh g. two-headed muscle of the upper arm and three-headed muscle of the upper arm h. two-headed muscle of the thigh and three-headed muscle of the calf 267. Skeletal muscles: a. are voluntary b. are controlled by the cerebral and spinal nerves c. are involuntary d. are controlled by the autonomic nerves e. enable the peristaltic movements of the stomach f. enable the peristaltic movements of the small intestine g. are formed by the multinucleated muscle fibres h. are characteristic by the sensitivity, contractility and elasticity 268. The number of human muscles is approximately: a. 200 b. 600 c. 1 500 d. 300 e. 3 700 f. 600, the most of them are paired muscles g. 1 700 h. 600, the most of them are not paired muscles 269. The basic unit of the skeletal muscle is: a. striated muscle fibre b. muscle fascicle c. mononuclear muscle fibre d. multinucleated muscle fibre e. myofibril f. head, belly and tail g. actin and myosin h. sarcolemma 270. Striated muscles attach to: a. smooth muscles b. bones c. tendons d. skeleton so that muscle bridges one or more joints e. bones directly f. bones through the fibrous strips g. skeleton so that muscle always bridges one joint h. cartilages 271. Which muscle types have specific morphological and functional status: a. myocardium b. myocardium because functionally and morphologically it combines the properties of smooth and striated muscles c. myocardium because it is tubular d. heart muscle e. epicardium – specific muscle, which ensures the heart action f. pericardium – specific striated muscle g. myocardium, because it is structurally similar to skeletal muscle and functionally similar to smooth muscle h. heart muscle because it is structurally similar to smooth muscle and functionally similar to skeletal muscle 272. Muscle fascicle comprises: a. 10 – 100 mononuclear muscle fibres b. 10 – 100 multinuclear muscle fibres c. 10 – 100 myofibrils d. head, belly and tail e. 10 – 100 fibres f. actin and myosin myofibrils g. 10 – 100 fascicles h. 10 – 100 multinuclear muscle fibres, which act antagonistic or synergistic 273. Which proportion of the body weight is comprised by the weight of human muscles: a. in men approximately 36 % of body weight b. in women approximately 32 % of body weight c. in women approximately 36 % of body weight d. in men approximately 32 % of body weight e. in both men and women the proportion is the same f. variably, according to the way of living g. individually, according to one ́s predispositions h. in men often higher proportion than in women 274. Which of the following muscles does not belong to the muscles of respiration: a. external intercostal muscles b. internal intercostal muscles c. pectoralis major d. diaphragm e. trapezius muscle f. masseter muscles g. deltoid muscle h. back muscles 275. Muscle tone is: a. muscle contraction b. resting tension of the muscle c. degenerative disorder of a muscle d. power acting on contraction of striated muscle e. maximal contraction of striated muscle f. state of certain muscle tension of each muscle even at rest g. muscle reaction on external stimulus h. muscle relaxation 276. Which of the following belong to facial muscles: a. sphincters of the mouth which may move a mandible b. mimetic muscles which may move a mandible c. masseter muscles d. laughing muscle e. nasal muscle f. pharyngeal muscles, which are important in the phonation g. mimetic muscles which make a facial expression h. muscles of the mouth 277. Muscles of the forearm: a. ensure movements in shoulder joint b. ensure movements in elbow joint c. ensure movements in carpal joints d. comprise three-headed muscle of the upper arm e. comprise two-headed muscle of the upper arm f. comprise flexors g. comprise extensors h. ensure elbow flexion – for example two-headed muscle of the upper arm 278. Which of the following is the extensor of human upper limb: a. two-headed muscle of the upper arm b. three-headed muscle of the upper arm c. three-headed muscle of the upper arm, which is antagonistic to two-headed muscle of the upper arm d. four-headed muscle of the upper arm e. deltoid muscle f. all the muscles of the upper arm g. three-headed muscle of the upper arm, which is synergistic to two-headed muscle of the upper arm h. three-headed muscle of the upper arm, which belongs to muscles of the shoulder girdle 279. Two-headed muscle of the thigh: a. belongs to flexors b. belongs to extensors c. belongs to adductors d. causes the flexion in hip joint e. causes the flexion in knee joint f. enables the movement of the lower limb toward a body midline g. enables external rotation in hip joint h. acts as the extensor of hip joint 280. Which of the following is the flexor of the upper limb: a. deltoid muscle b. ulnar extensor of the carpus c. muscle which causes the elbow flexion d. two-headed muscle of the upper arm e. three-headed muscle of the upper arm f. superficial flexor of the fingers g. ulnar flexor of the carpus h. radial flexor of the carpus 281. Which of the following is the longest muscle in human body: a. sartorius muscle containing 1 - 40 mm long muscular fibres b. sartorius muscle which moves the legs toward a body midline and enables external rotation at the hip joint c. deltoid muscle d. three-headed muscle of the upper arm e. sartorius muscle f. four-headed muscle of the thigh g. thigh muscle which causes the flexion at the knee joint and hip joint h. sartorius muscle containing 12-30 cm long muscular fibres 282. Four-headed muscle of the thigh influences: a. flexion of the knee b. extension at the knee joint c. extension and flexion of the knee d. extension at the thigh joint e. extension at the hip joint f. kicking g. stability of the leg by walking h. shape of the thigh 283. Which muscle binds by Achilles tendon and is markedly important for walking: a. four-headed muscle of the calf b. muscles of the foot c. flexor of the knee joint d. three-headed muscle of the thigh e. three-headed muscle of the calf f. extensor of the knee joint g. two-headed muscle of the thigh h. four-headed muscle of the thigh 284. Which important voluntary sphincters belong to the pelvic floor muscles: a. only external anal sphincter b. internal urethral sphincter c. all the sphincters of the pelvis d. external and internal urethral sphincters e. external urethral sphincter and external anal sphincter f. internal urethral sphincter and internal anal sphincter g. muscles of the uterus h. muscles of the uterus, external urethral sphincter and external anal sphincter 285. Muscles of the thigh comprise: a. flexors – e.g. four-headed muscle of the thigh b. flexors – e.g. two-headed muscle of the thigh c. adductors – e.g. adductor longus muscle d. extensors – e.g. sartorius muscle e. adductors – e.g. four-headed muscle of the thigh f. flexors – e.g. two-headed muscle of the calf g. flexors – e.g. three-headed muscle of the calf h. hip muscles 286. Which muscle takes part in changes of scapula positions in man: a. two-headed muscle of the upper arm b. three-headed muscle of the upper arm c. short back muscle d. deep back muscle e. trapezius muscle f. deltoid muscle g. diaphragm h. four-headed muscle of the upper arm 287. Trapezius muscle: a. belongs to the muscles of the thorax b. raises the ribs and enables inhalation c. pulls the ribs and enables expiration d. makes a wall of the abdominal cavity e. belongs to the back muscles f. fix a position of scapula in the upper limb motions g. belongs to the superficial back muscles h. belongs to the deep back muscles 288. Muscles of the thorax comprise: a. external intercostal muscles, which enable expiration b. internal intercostal muscles, which enable inhalation c. external intercostal muscles, which enable inhalation d. internal intercostal muscles, which enable expiration e. diaphragm f. pectoral muscle g. deltoid muscle h. straight abdominal muscle 289. The blood of a healthy person has: a. pH 7,2 – 7,8 b. on average, less haemoglobin in one litre in men than in women c. 4,3 – 5,3.106 erythrocytes in 1 ml d. more erythrocytes than leukocytes e. 4 – 9 x 103 leukocytes in one microlitre f. 150 – 300 x 1012 platelets in one litre g. 150 – 300 x 109 platelets in one litre h. less erythrocytes than leukocytes 290. The blood of a healthy person: a. participates in the thermoregulation processes b. contains living cells c. plays a transport role d. mediates the transfer of some of the information and signals e. participates in immunity processes f. is a red transparent thick liquid g. is necessary for the course of excretion processes h. has a very unstable pH and osmotic pressure 291. It holds true of albumins in human blood plasma: a. they are hormone carriers b. they bind water, thus maintaining a permanent volume of blood c. they maintain stable pH of blood d. they participate in the specific defence of an organism e. they participate in the blood coagulation mechanism f. they are immunoglobulins g. they are produced by the lymphocytes h. they are produced in the liver 292. It holds true of immunoglobulins in the human blood plasma: a. they are produced by the lymphocytes b. they are produced in the liver c. they transport hormones d. they participate in specific defence of organism e. they participate in the non-specific defence of an organism f. they bind water, thus maintaining a permanent volume of blood g. they are able to destroy the antigens, which penetrate into the organism h. they participate in the blood coagulation mechanism 293. The following plasmatic proteins participate in the mechanism of blood coagulation: a. antigens b. immunoglobulins c. haemoglobin d. fibrinogen e. vitamin K f. Ca2+ ions g. agglutinins h. gamma globulins 294. The physiological level of glucose in human blood is called: a. glycaemia b. sedimentation c. haematocrit d. coagulation e. haemostasis f. diabetes mellitus g. anaemia h. homeostasis 295. Permanent increase of the level of glucose in blood is: a. named as glycaemia b. named as sedimentation c. characteristic for a metabolic disease in which the body is enable to produce any or enough insulin d. characteristic for diabetes mellitus e. named as anaemia f. named as hypertension g. named as alimentary hyperglycaemia h. named as chronic hypoglycaemia 296. The proportion of erythrocytes in the overall blood volume is called: a. sedimentation b. glycaemia c. haematocrit d. agglutination e. coagulation f. vasoconstriction g. leucosis h. hypertension 297. The average number of erythrocytes in an adult man is: a. 4.3 – 5.3 x 106 in 1 microlitre of blood b. 4.3 – 5.3 x 1012/l of blood c. 3.8 – 4.8 x 1012/l of blood d. 4 – 9 x 109/l of blood e. 135 – 170 g/l of blood f. 150 – 300 x 109/l of blood g. 4.3 – 5.3 x 109/l of blood h. 18 – 20 x 109/l of blood 298. The decreased number of erythrocytes or haemoglobin in human blood is called: a. leucocytosis b. anaemia c. leucosis d. hypotension e. haemophilia f. cyanosis g. hypertension h. leukemia 299. The majority of molecular oxygen in human blood is: a. physically dissolved b. bound to the atoms of the haemoglobin iron c. bound to the atoms of plasmatic protein iron d. bound to the globin part of haemoglobin e. bound to divalent iron of the haem f. bound to the haem part of haemoglobin g. bound to trivalent iron of the haem h. bound to the plasma proteins 300. Erythrocytes of a healthy adult person: a. are formed in the spleen b. those damaged and old are phagocytized by leukocytes in the spleen c. are formed in the bone marrow d. those damaged and old are phagocytized by leukocytes in the bone marrow e. provide for both innate and acquired immunity reactions f. have several tens of agglutinins on their surface g. have several tens of antigens on their surface h. are divided into granulocytes and agranulocytes 301. The following vitamins are required for the formation of human erythrocytes: a. ascorbic acid b. albumins c. B12 d. B9 e. folic acid f. iron g. amino acids h. cobalamin 302. Which of the following elements is a part of the molecule of haemoglobin in man: a. iron b. copper c. carbon d. hydrogen e. nitrogen f. cobalt g. oxygen h. sulphur 303. The following arises in man when oxygen binds to haemoglobin: a. oxyhaemoglobin, when oxygen is bound to trivalent iron of the haem b. oxytocin c. carboxyhaemoglobin d. carbonylhaemoglobin e. oxyhaemoglobin, when oxygen is bound to divalent iron of the haem f. methaemoglobin g. oxyhaemoglobin, when oxygen is bound to divalent iron of the globin h. carbaminohaemoglobin 304. A hereditary disorder of blood coagulation is called: a. anaemia b. glycaemia c. leukemia d. leucosis e. hypertension f. agglutination g. transfusion h. haemophilia 305. Blood leukocytes have an important role in the: a. stopping of bleeding b. transport of oxygen c. defence against infection d. transport of waste substances e. transport of nutrients f. phagocytosis of foreign matter g. production of immunoglobulins against antigens h. production of immunoglobulins against agglutinins 306. Leukocytes of man: a. have a biconcave shape b. differ according to the presence of granules in the cytoplasm into granulocytes and agranulocytes c. are destroyed in the liver 50 d. are destroyed in the spleen e. provide for the transfer of hormones into the whole body f. differ according to the presence of granules in the nucleus into granulocytes and agranulocytes g. are important for the blood clotting h. are produced by the red bone marrow 307. Blood platelets of man: a. arise by the fragmentation of leukocytes b. arise by the fragmentation of erythrocytes c. belong to the cellular blood elements d. belong to the non-cellular blood elements e. have an important role in haemostasis f. arise by the mitotic division in the spleen and in the bone marrow g. play an important role in maintaining the homeostasis h. through the production of the growth factor, they participate in the regeneration of blood vessel endothelium 308. Erythrocytes in human blood: a. are capable of phagocytosis b. are nucleus free blood elements c. are capable of diapedesis d. transport oxygen and carbon dioxide e. contain haemoglobin, which is able to bind and release oxygen and carbon dioxide irreversibly f. are nucleus-containing blood elements g. contain haemoglobin, which is able to bind and release oxygen and carbon dioxide reversibly h. are non-cellular blood elements 309. The stopping of bleeding is termed as: a. haemostasis b. homeostasis c. coagulation d. diapedesis e. thrombosis f. agglutination of erythrocytes g. vasoconstriction h. agglutination of leukocytes 310. Which organic substances are the most represented as to their weight in human blood plasma: a. glucose b. proteins c. urea d. sugars e. amino acids f. water g. nitrogen substances of non-protein nature h. fats 311. Plasma proteins of man are important for: a. blood coagulation – albumins b. transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide c. immunity processes – fibrinogen d. regeneration of the vessel epithelium e. blood coagulation f. transport of some of the substances, e.g. hormones g. immunity processes h. regulation processes 312. Human fibrinogen: a. is part of blood plasma b. participates in blood coagulation c. can be found in erythrocytes d. is formed in the bone marrow e. is agglutinogen f. is transformed into thrombin by the action of thrombokinase g. is protein h. is transformed into fibrin by the action of thrombokinase 313. Insufficient coagulation of human blood may be caused by the following: a. reaction of agglutinin with foreign agglutinogen b. lack of vitamin B12 c. lack of vitamin K d. hereditary disease – haemophilia e. lack of iron in the organism f. hereditary disease – albinism g. disease with the X-linked pattern of inheritance h. insufficient vasoconstriction of blood vessels in the place of injury 314. The following occurs in blood coagulation in man: a. transformation of fibrinogen into fibrin b. transformation of the soluble plasmatic protein into insoluble fibrous fibrin c. transformation of fibrin into fibrinogen d. transformation of thrombin into fibrin by the action of fibrinogen e. immunity reaction between fibrinogen and fibrin f. agglutination of erythrocytes g. sedimentation of erythrocytes h. diapedesis of erythrocytes 315. In the period of systole of heart ventricles of healthy man: a. ventricles are filled with blood b. blood is pumped into big arteries c. mitral valve is being opened d. semilunar valves are being closed e. atrioventricular valves are closed f. semilunar valves are being opened g. muscle of ventricles is contracted h. systole of atria is already completed 316. Atrioventricular valves in human heart: a. prevent a backflow of blood from ventricles into atria b. are located between atria and ventricles c. are located at the beginning of heart aorta and pulmonary artery d. prevent a backflow of blood from atria into ventricles e. prevent a backflow of blood from ventricles into big arteries f. are a firm, impermeable barrier between ventricles and atria g. are two of them, one separates the ventricles, the other one separates the atria h. are four of them 317. In the blood circulation of man, the blood passes from the right ventricle: a. by pulmonary veins to the lungs b. by the pulmonary artery to the lungs c. by the pulmonary artery to the entire body d. through the mitral valve to the lungs e. by the pulmonary artery to the right atrium f. through aorta to the lungs g. by the superior vena cava and the inferior vena cava to the lungs h. by the pulmonary trunk to the lungs 318. Deoxygenized blood in man may be found: a. in all the veins b. in pulmonary veins c. in the lungs d. in the right heart atrium e. in the left heart atrium f. in the pulmonary artery g. in the right heart ventricle h. in the left heart ventricle 319. Heart valves: a. are at the beginning of pulmonary veins b. prevent a backflow of blood c. are atrioventricular and semilunar d. prevent a mixing of oxygenized and deoxygenized blood e. are between the atria f. are between the ventricles g. prevent a backflow of blood from the atria into the ventricles and from big arteries into the ventricles h. prevent a backflow of blood from the ventricles into the atria and from big arteries into the ventricles 320. The following valves may be found between the atria and the ventricles in the heart of man: a. tricuspid and mitral b. tricuspid and bicuspid c. atrioventricular d. coronary e. semilunar f. trilunar and bilunar g. pulmonary and venous h. the valves preventing a mixing of oxygenized and deoxygenized blood 321. Systole is: a. a phase of relative relaxation of the heart atrium or the heart ventricle b. a phase of contraction of the heart atrium or the heart ventricle c. a part of the heart cycle d. filling the heart with blood e. a phase of the heart activity f. filling the atria with blood g. a phase of heart inactivity h. high frequency of the heart activity 322. Diastole is: a. a phase of relative relaxation of the heart atrium or ventricle b. a phase of contraction of the heart atrium or the heart ventricle c. a part of the heart cycle d. a phase, when the atria or ventricles are filled with blood e. a phase of the heart activity f. pushing blood out of the heart by contracting the atrium or ventricle muscle g. a phase of the heart inactivity h. contraction of the heart left ventricle 323. The following enter into the cavity of the right atrium of a healthy human heart: a. arteries b. pulmonary veins c. the superior and the inferior vena cava d. only the superior vena cava e. only the inferior vena cava f. pulmonary artery g. oxygenized and deoxygenized blood in equal proportion h. coronary arteries 324. The heart muscle is supplied by oxygen and nutrients through the following: a. aorta b. pulmonary artery c. vessels of conduction system of the heart d. coronary veins e. coronary arteries f. coronary arteries, which originate from the aorta g. coronary arteries, which originate from the pulmonary artery h. coronary arteries, which originate from the pulmonary trunk 325. Heart muscle: a. is termed as epicardium b. is termed as endocardium c. has the ability of contraction d. operates in phases – systole and diastole e. contracts rhythmically f. contracts and does not relax g. is nourished by the conduction heart muscle h. contracts arhythmically 326. The myocardial infarction is caused by the following: a. embolism of some of the coronary arteries b. incompetence of valves c. embolism of aorta d. embolism of pulmonary artery e. embolism of some of the atria or ventricles f. anaemia g. myocardial inflammation h. embolism of some of the coronary veins 327. Unlike the arteries, the veins of man: a. deliver the blood to the heart b. take the blood away from the heart c. have a thin layer of muscle d. have a thick layer of muscle e. are more elastic than arteries f. are less elastic than arteries g. enter the heart h. leave the heart 328. The following participates in the circulation of blood in the veins: a. the pressure caused by the systole of the left ventricle b. sucking power of the heart c. blood pressure in the veins to a high degree d. blood pressure in the veins to a low degree e. skeletal-muscle pump f. collection of skeletal muscles g. collection of smooth muscles h. breathing – during inspiration the intra-thoracic pressure increases and blood is sucked in vena cava and the right ventricle 329. Blood flows into the lungs of man immediately from: a. pulmonary veins b. the left ventricle c. pulmonary artery, which originates from the right ventricle d. the right atrium and pulmonary artery e. coronary arteries f. pulmonary artery, which originates from the left ventricle g. aorta, which originates from the left ventricle h. the left ventricle and the pulmonary artery 330. The following take the blood away from human lungs: a. pulmonary artery b. two pulmonary veins, which enter the left atrium c. four pulmonary arteries d. pulmonary veins e. four pulmonary veins, which enter the right atrium f. four pulmonary veins, which enter the left atrium g. pulmonary artery, which enters the left atrium h. pulmonary arteries, which enter the left atrium 331. The muscle layer of the vessel wall: a. is called epicardium b. is called myocardium c. is thicker in veins than in arteries d. is thicker in arteries than in veins e. consists of striated muscles f. consists of smooth muscles g. is specific h. is thinner in veins than in arteries 332. In the pulmonary veins of man, the following blood flows: a. deoxygenized b. oxygenized from the lungs into the right heart atrium c. oxygenized from the lungs into the right heart atrium d. oxygenized from the lungs into the left heart atrium e. deoxygenized into the right heart atrium f. oxygenized g. oxygenized from the left heart ventricle into the lungs h. deoxygenized from the left heart ventricle into the lungs 333. Myocardial infarction in man arises: a. by bleeding into the heart muscle b. most frequently as a consequence of atherosclerosis c. by the interruption of the supply of oxygen and nutrients into the heart muscle d. by tearing off the coronary artery from the pulmonary artery e. by closing the coronary artery or its branch f. in exceeding the heart volume g. by closing the pulmonary artery or its branch h. by the part of the heart muscle becoming necrotic 334. Atherosclerosis: a. is thickening of the arterial wall caused by sedimentation of polysaccharides b. arises as a consequence of the decreased supply of oxygen to tissues c. is an accompanying phenomenon of ageing d. results in the decreased flow of blood through arteries e. is a hypertension disease f. is a degenerative disease of arteries g. is a memory loss h. is a degenerative venous disease 335. The conduction system of the heart in man: a. is formed by coronary arteries b. provides for the heart nutrition c. is a special tissue which resembles a muscle tissue as to its structure and a nervous tissue as to its function d. is formed by the so called conduction heart muscle e. is a special nerve tissue formed by neurons f. is a special heart circulation system, which has the properties of both muscle and nerve tissue g. pumps 70 ml of blood into the body by every pulse h. transmits about 70 electric impulses per minute 336. The following values are considered to be abnormal in an adult person: a. the systolic pressure over 13,3 kPa b. the systolic pressure over 20 kPa c. the systolic pressure over 100 torr d. the systolic pressure over 160 torr e. the diastolic pressure over 13,3 kPa f. the diastolic pressure under 13,3 kPa g. the diastolic pressure over 100 torr, then we talk of hypertension disease h. the diastolic pressure over 160 torr, then we talk of hypotension disease 337. The following is risk factor of atherosclerosis: a. bulimia b. high blood pressure c. smoking d. myocardial infarction e. decreased activity of kidneys f. obesity g. anaemia h. increased sedimentation 338. The lymphatic system of man: a. does not have the same anatomic branching as the cardiovascular system b. supplies the tissues by the tissue fluid c. is formed by lymphatic vessels d. takes the excessive tissue fluid away from the tissues e. transports lymph f. has its own heart g. creates high pressure in its vessels h. takes the waste substances away from the tissues 339. The lymph of man: a. has similar components as blood plasma b. contains blood cells c. does not contain blood cells d. supplies the tissues with nutrients e. is filtered in lymphatic nodes f. flows into the tissues under low pressure g. contains immune cells h. flows in lymphatic vessels 340. Lymphatic nodes: a. produce lymph b. filter lymph c. filter blood d. produce lymphocytes e. are e.g. tonsils f. retain foreign microorganisms g. retain toxins and waste substances h. belong to the circulatory system 341. The lymph of man: a. arises by the filtration in the lymphatic nodes b. deliver part of the lymph into blood c. arises in capillaries d. circulates in the enclosed lymph stream e. contains many lymphocytes f. is an extracellular liquid g. normally does not contain erythrocytes h. contains a higher amount of proteins than blood plasma 342. The following belongs to the respiratory system of man: a. stomach b. esophagus c. lungs d. airways e. pharynx f. trachea g. wind pipe h. larynx 343. Breathing of man: a. is regulated by the respiratory centre located in the spinal cord b. is regulated by the respiratory centre located in the medulla oblongata c. is regulated by the respiratory centre d. is regulated by the respiratory centre in the lungs e. responds to the requirements of the organism automatically f. is regulated by the respiratory centre, which is influenced by the nerve stimuli g. is regulated by the respiratory centre, which is influenced by the chemical stimuli h. is divided into upper and lower breathing 344. The right lung of man: a. has two lobes b. has three lobes c. is covered by the parietal pleura d. is covered by the visceral pleura e. is a mirror image of the left lung f. has one lobe less than the left one g. has one lobe more than the left one h. has two lobes more than the left one 345. It holds true of the airways of man that: a. they are divided into upper and lower ones b. they are divided into external and internal ones c. they are the proper organ of external breathing d. the upper airways consist of the nasal cavity and pharynx e. the upper airways consist of the nasal cavity and nasopharynx f. they include the lungs, which are divided by grooves into three lobes g. they include bronchi, which are covered by the respiratory epithelium h. bronchi are covered by the ciliated epithelium, while the cilia vibrate lung-wards 346. Exchange of breathing gases in man takes place: a. in the upper airways b. in the lower airways c. in the alveoli – this is called external respiration d. in the alveoli – this is called internal respiration e. between the blood and cells – this is the case of external respiration f. between the blood and cells – this is the case of internal respiration g. in the lungs – this is the case of internal respiration h. in the alveoli – this is the case of tissue respiration 347. The parietal pleura of man: a. is a soft serous membrane b. is a soft serous membrane, which divides the lungs into lobes c. is a thoracic part of aorta d. covers both heart and lungs e. touches upon the lung covered by the visceral pleura f. is a synonym for the visceral pleura g. covers the internal surface of the thoracic cavity h. runs from the abdominal cavity into the thorax 348. The visceral pleura of man: a. is a continuation of the pulmonary artery after its immersion into the lungs b. is an inflammatory disease of the lung surface c. is a soft elastic cartilage on the lung surface d. is a soft serous membrane covering the lungs e. is a muscle septum separating the lungs from the abdominal cavity f. is a continuation of the bronchi g. runs onto the internal surface of the thoracic cavity as the parietal pleura h. runs onto the heart surface as the parietal pleura 349. Inspiration of man is provided by: a. respiratory epithelia b. the walls of lung alveoli c. external intercostal muscles and movement of the diaphragm downwards d. internal intercostal muscles and movement of the diaphragm upwards e. external intercostal muscles and movement of the diaphragm upwards f. external and internal intercostal muscles g. internal intercostal muscles and movement of the diaphragm downwards h. muscles of the nasopharynx, larynx, back muscles, all the intercostal muscles and diaphragm 350. Larynx: a. is part of the upper airways b. is part of the lower airways c. serves for respiration and phonation d. branches at the end into two bronchi e. is reinforced by a set of cartilages, muscles, and ligaments f. has a cartilage flap at the entry – glottis g. has a cartilage flap at the entry – epiglottis h. is a hollow organ at the back of the neck 351. Entry into the larynx is enclosed by: a. pharyngeal cartilage flap b. laryngeal cartilage flap c. the pyloric sphincter d. epiglottis e. glottis f. cartilage flap g. laryngeal cartilage cover, the base of which is formed by the hyaline cartilage h. laryngeal cartilage, the base of which is formed by the elastic cartilage 352. The following belongs to the lower airways: a. lungs b. nasopharynx c. bronchi d. pharynx e. larynx f. pulmo g. trachea h. cilia 353. Normal breathing frequency of man in the rest position is: a. 70 breaths per minute b. 40 breaths per minute c. 16 – 18 breaths per minute d. 7 – 8 breaths per minute e. 120 breaths per minute f. 80 – 120 breaths per minute g. influenced by age, sex, nutrition h. influenced by the ambient air temperature, time of the day, activity of the organism 354. The maximal amount of air expelled from the lungs by maximal expiration, which follows the maximal inspiration, is called: a. vital capacity of the lungs b. breath volume c. minute ventilation d. lung ventilation e. internal breathing f. inhalation g. expiration h. respiration 355. Vital capacity of human lungs: a. is 7 – 9 litres of air in the rest position b. varies in men from 3 500 to 5 000 ml of air c. varies with different individuals d. is about 500 ml of air in the rest position e. is an indicator of lungs efficiency f. is 16 – 18 breaths a minute g. is on the average higher in men h. varies in women from 2 500 to 4 000 ml of air 356. The name of the instrument for measuring the vital capacity of lungs is: a. tomograph b. sonograph c. spirometer d. spirograph e. tonometer f. refractometer g. potentiometer h. voltmeter 357. Vocal cords ligaments and cartilage flap separating the respiratory system from the digestive system can be found in: a. the nasal cavity b. the nasopharynx c. the pharynx d. the larynx e. the trachea f. the lungs g. the thyroid cartilage h. epiglottis 358. External respiration of man: a. is an exchange of breathing gases between the blood and cells of the whole body b. is an exchange of breathing gases between the atmospheric air and blood c. is an exchange of O2 and CO2 between the blood and tissues by diffusion d. includes lung ventilation, distribution and diffusion of breathing gases e. is the so called lung breathing f. is regulated from the breathing centre in the spinal cord g. is the so called tissue breathing h. is oxygenation of haemoglobin followed by the change of its colour to dark blue 359. The following is included in the defence breathing reflexes: a. cough b. nausea c. nose blowing d. vomiting e. sneezing f. sweating g. defecation reflex h. nausea reflex 360. Internal respiration of man: a. provides for the distribution of the inhaled air into all the alveoli b. is an exchange of O2 and CO2 between blood and tissues by diffusion c. is a proper exchange of air between the lungs and the environment d. takes place in the lung alveoli e. is the so called pulmonary breathing f. includes pulmonary ventilation, distribution, and diffusion of gases g. is the so called tissue breathing h. is an exchange of breathing gases between the blood and tissues by the passive transport 361. Irritation of the laryngeal epithelium, trachea and bronchi induces the following in man: a. cough b. snuffles c. sneezing d. vomiting e. defence reflexes f. sweating g. influenza h. nausea 362. The following belongs among the most frequent diseases of human airways: a. bronchitis – lung inflammation b. pharyngitis – laryngeal inflammation c. laryngitis – pharyngeal inflammation d. bronchitis – bronchial inflammation e. pharyngitis – pharyngeal inflammation f. laryngitis – laryngeal inflammation g. sneezing h. droplet infection 363. The following holds true of infectious diseases of human airways: a. most of these diseases are transmitted by droplet infection b. most of these diseases are transmitted by sneezing and coughing c. may be of viral origin – e.g. influenza d. may be of bacterial origin – e.g. tuberculosis e. may be of viral origin – e.g. tuberculosis f. may be of bacterial origin – e.g. influenza g. are most frequently transmitted by contaminated foodstuff h. allergy belongs to them 364. The entire digestive system of man consists of the following parts: a. oral cavity, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small and large intestines, rectum and anal orifice, digestive glands b. oral cavity, larynx, esophagus, stomach, small and large intestines, digestive glands c. oral cavity, esophagus, stomach, small and large intestines, liver and spleen d. oral cavity, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small and large intestines, rectum, anal orifice, independent small digestive glands and large digestive glands placed in the wall of digestive tract e. oral cavity, pharynx, stomach, small and large intestines, appendix, liver, spleen f. oral cavity, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, large intestine g. oral cavity, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small and large intestines, rectum, anal orifice, small and large digestive glands h. oral cavity, pharynx, larynx, esophagus, stomach, small and large intestines, digestive glands 365. Which of the following teeth are missing in the child ́s dentition: a. incisive teeth b. eye teeth c. premolar teeth d. milk teeth e. all of the molar teeth f. 8 premolar teeth g. 4 molar teeth h. 2 incisive teeth 366. The following can be found in the oral cavity: a. 3 pairs of large salivary glands b. small and large digestive glands c. 3 large salivary glands, which produce the saliva provoked by a conditioned reflex only d. parotid glands producing the saliva containing ptyalin e. sublingual glands producing the saliva containing amylases f. submandibular glands producing the saliva containing ptyalin g. 3 pairs of large saliva glands producing the saliva containing bactericidal substances and amylases h. 3 pairs of large saliva glands – sublingual, submandibular, parotid ones 367. In the oral cavity of man: a. digestion of starches is completed b. bacteria live c. absorption of some of the substances begins d. ptyalin can be found e. digestion of polysaccharides begins f. amylase can be found g. bactericidal substances in the saliva can be found, e.g. lysosome h. mechanical digestion of food occurs 368. By the action of gastric juice, the following is digested in humans: a. pepsinogen to pepsin b. proteins by the action of chymosin c. the ingested substances are detoxicated d. saccharides by the action of pepsin e. amino acids by the action of pepsin f. proteins g. some fats by the action of the gastric lipase h. some fats by the action of pancreatic lipase 369. Gastric juice contains: a. pepsin, which is excreted in form of inactive pepsinogen b. HCl, which creates a strong acidic environment in the stomach c. mucin, which is excreted by mucous glands at the stomach inlet d. pepsin, which is excreted in form of inactive trypsinogen e. alkaline mucus, which prevents the destruction of vitamins of the group B and vitamin C f. water g. acidic mucus, which covers the stomach walls and protects them against the effects of HCl h. gastrin, which activates pepsinogen to pepsin 370. Complete digestion of nutrients occurs: a. in the small intestine b. in the stomach by the action of pepsin c. in the large intestine by the action of putrefactive bacteria d. in the liver e. in the small intestine by the action of pancreatic juice, bile, and intestinal juice f. in the small intestine by the action of pepsin, lipase and amylase g. in the large intestine by the action of trypsin, lipase, amylase and enzymes of the intestinal juice h. in the stomach by the action of pepsin, amylase and stomach lipase 371. Ptyalin is the enzyme: a. present in the gastric juice b. excreted by the parotid glands c. present in the saliva d. pre-digesting polysaccharides in the oral cavity e. which digests proteins in the oral cavity f. present in the intestinal juice g. which has bactericidal effects h. which begins to digest proteins in the oral cavity 372. Chymosin is: a. a stomach enzyme of infants coagulating milk b. acidic chyme c. predigested food d. the enzyme of the chyme e. the enzyme of the gastric juice f. the stomach lipase g. enzyme of the small intestine in infants coagulating milk h. alkaline mucus, which covers the stomach walls 373. Tiny projections of the small intestine epithelium of man enabling improved absorption of nutrients are: a. minor glands producing intestinal juice b. fimbriae c. villi d. circular corrugations - microvilli e. lobules f. basal corpuscles g. islets h. cilia 374. The absorption of nutrients takes place mainly in: a. the stomach b. the large intestine, which consists of the following three parts – duodenum, jejunum and ileum c. intestinum tenue d. the small intestine, which consists of the following three parts – duodenum, jejunum and ileum e. the liver f. the muscle pipe, which joins the stomach with the duodenum g. the section of the digestive tract between the stomach and the large intestine h. the muscle pipe, which joins the stomach with the large intestine 375. The digestion of proteins takes place in the: a. oral cavity b. stomach c. small intestine d. large intestine e. liver f. pancreas g. appendix h. gall bladder 376. The digestion of fats takes place in the: a. oral cavity b. stomach – primarily c. small intestine d. large intestine e. liver f. gall bladder g. stomach – to a limited extent h. pancreas 377. The following enzymes fully participate in digestion in the small intestine of man: a. lipase b. trypsin, which comes into the duodenum in form of inactive pepsinogen c. pepsin, which breaks down proteins into peptides and amino acids d. trypsin, which breaks down proteins into peptides and amino acids e. ptyalin, which breaks down polysaccharides into simple sugars f. chymosin, which coagulates milk g. amylase, which breaks down polysaccharides into simple sugars h. pancreatic juice enzymes 378. Trypsin in man: a. is produced by the pancreas, in the stomach it breaks down proteins into peptides and amino acids b. is produced by the pancreas, in the small intestine it breaks down polypeptides into peptides and amino acids c. is produced by the stomach glands, where it breaks down proteins into polypeptides d. is produced by the pancreas, in the small intestine it breaks down fats into glycerol and fatty acids e. is a proteolytic enzyme f. comes into the duodenum in form of inactive pepsinogen g. comes into the duodenum in form of inactive trypsinogen h. is a pancreatic hormone 379. Pancreatic juice contains: a. the salts neutralising acidic chyme b. active trypsinogen, which is inactivated by enterokinase c. inactive trypsinogen, which is activated by enterokinase d. inactive pepsinogen, which is activated by enterokinase e. pepsin, lipase, chymosin f. also hormones – glucagon and insulin g. the enzymes digesting the proteins, saccharides, and fats h. inactive trypsinogen, which is activated in the stomach by enterokinase 380. Human pancreas: a. produces pancreatic juice and its ducts lead into the ileum b. produces pancreatic juice and its ducts lead into the duodenum c. produces protease, lipase, amylase d. produces trypsin, amylase, lipase e. lies under the liver in the duodenal curve f. lies under the stomach in the duodenal curve g. produces enzymes digesting the proteins, saccharides, and fats h. produces chymosin, ptyalin, lipase 381. Bile acids salts in the small intestine of man: a. break down fats into glycerol and fatty acids b. are stercobilin and urobilin c. disperse fats to minor drops of a large area d. facilitate the action of enzymes digesting the fats e. facilitate the action of amylases f. facilitate the action of lipase g. are bilirubin and biliverdin – arise as a product of the haemoglobin breakdown h. help emulsify the fats 382. Bile in man is produced by: a. the gall bladder and emulsifies fats to minor drops b. the liver and stored in the small intestine c. the liver and stored in the gall bladder d. the liver and facilitates the action of lipase e. the liver and facilitates the action of trypsin f. the liver and emulsifies fats to minor drops g. the gall bladder and facilitates the action of lipase h. the liver and breaks down fats into glycerol and fatty acids 383. Large intestine of healthy man: a. is about 1.5 m long, has villi and transversal sulci b. contains a lot of goblet cells, which produce intestinal juice c. contains symbiotic fermentative and putrefactive bacteria d. as to its activity, it is influenced by the presence of bacteria and their products e. is a place where undigested food remains are decomposed and fermented by bacteria f. contains a lot of goblet cells, which produce mucus g. is filled by the lymphatic tissue, which may respond to the irritation by the inflammation h. does not secrete any juices that have a digestive capacity 384. The most frequent functional disturbances of the digestive system include: a. hypertension b. appendicitis c. atherosclerosis d. anaemia e. laryngitis f. obesity g. gastritis h. formation of ulcers 385. Large intestine of adult man is long about: a. 12 m b. 3 m c. 0.5 m d. 1.5 m e. 20 - 25 m f. 40 - 50 m g. 4 - 5 m h. 3 m 386. The following is/are absorbed in the large intestine of man: a. water b. some salts c. some drugs d. small amount of proteins, lipids, and sugars e. mucus produced by the goblet cells f. symbiotic putrefactive and fermentative bacteria g. indigestible food remains h. only water 387. Which digestive enzymes are secreted by the man into the large intestine: a. fermentative ones b. lipase c. amylase d. trypsin e. none f. putrefactive ones g. proteases h. disaccharidases 388. As a rule, the following live permanently in the large intestine of adult man: a. non-pathogenic bacteria b. fermentative bacteria c. pathogenic bacteria d. nitrification bacteria e. symbiotic bacteria f. putrefactive bacteria g. Salmonella and Shigella h. minor unharmful helminths 389. The following are the energy-richest components of human food per unit of the weight: a. saccharides b. fats c. proteins d. essential amino acids e. mineral substances f. fibrous material and glucose g. peptides h. lipids 390. The most common source of energy from food for human organism are: a. saccharides b. proteins c. amino acids d. micronutrients e. fats f. nucleic acids g. ATP and ADP h. lipids 391. It holds true of the nutrition of man, that proteins: a. are a source of essential amino acids b. are a source of non-essential amino acids c. are the energy-richest component of food d. are required more in children and convalescents e. are a source of theine after initial digestion f. are digested in the digestive tract into individual atoms g. of animal origin are biologically most suitable h. are a rich source of vitamins and minerals 392. Lipids from the food of man are: a. digested mainly in the stomach b. the richest source of energy c. a weak source of energy d. the best digestible nutrient e. digested in the small intestine f. important for the intake of some vitamins g. dispensable, i.e. they need not to be present in the foodstuff at all h. included among macronutrients 393. Lipids are: a. digested by lipase in the small intestine b. emulsified by lipase into minor drops c. broken down by amylase into glycerol and fatty acids d. absorbed in the small intestine as glycerol and fatty acids e. absorbed in the large intestine as glycerol and fatty acids f. digested by lipase in the pancreas g. digested by trypsin in the small intestine h. the most important immediate source of energy for man 394. In complete fasting of man: a. bodily supplies of glycogen are becoming depleted b. bodily supplies of starch and fats are becoming depleted c. the first to be depleted is the glycogen store d. after consuming glycogen, the organism starts to use fats and proteins e. some of the organs may become smaller f. proteins are metabolically most saved in the body g. consumption of energy is completely covered from proteins as late as before the death h. almost all the bodily fat may be depleted 395. The trace elements include: a. cadmium b. cobalt c. selenium d. calcium e. chlorine f. phosphorus g. cobalamin h. magnesium 396. The following belong to the water-soluble vitamins: a. B, C, A, D b. B1, B2, PP, B6, C c. A, D, E, K d. niacin and pyridoxine e. retinol, phylloquinone, and tocopherol f. all vitamins, apart from A, D, E, and K g. all vitamins of group B h. retinol, ascorbic acid, and all the vitamins of group B 397. The following belongs to the fat-soluble vitamins: a. cobalamin b. retinol c. tocopherol d. ergocalciferol e. folic acid f. biotin g. ascorbic acid h. aneurin 398. The following is the storage form of glucose in human organism: a. sucrose b. galactose c. fructose d. glycogen e. glycerol f. lactose g. starch h. glycine 399. Liver of man: a. is a place of the production of bile b. is a place of the synthesis of glycogen c. is placed under the diaphragm d. has also the endocrine function e. lies under the stomach in the duodenal curve f. is a place of digesting and absorbing the nutrients g. is important in detoxification of harmful substances from the foodstuff h. is important in processing the substances absorbed in the small intestine 400. Liver of man: a. is the largest and the most important endocrine gland in the body b. is the largest exocrine gland in the body c. its average weight is 3 kg d. is placed under the diaphragm in the left part of the abdominal cavity e. is a site of synthesis of urea f. is placed under the diaphragm in the right part of the abdominal cavity g. is placed under the stomach in the right part of the abdominal cavity h. is a store of sugars in form of glycogen 401. Pyloric sphincter in man is found: a. between the esophagus and the stomach b. between the stomach and the duodenum c. between the stomach and the small intestine d. between the stomach and the large intestine e. at the outlet of the bile duct f. at the outlet of the pancreatic duct g. between the stomach and the ileum h. at the outlet of the large intestine 402. The children ́s dentition has: a. 18 teeth b. 20 teeth c. 32 teeth d. 22 teeth e. 12 teeth f. all of the teeth temporary, the so called milk teeth g. all of the teeth permanent, the so called secondary teeth h. 24 teeth 403. The developed milk dentition of a child has: a. 4 cheek teeth b. 4 premolar teeth c. 8 incisive teeth d. 4 eye teeth e. 8 molar teeth f. 32 teeth g. 20 teeth h. not developed eye teeth 404. Kidneys of man are situated: a. in the area of lumbar part of the spine b. as a non-pair, bean-shaped organ at the sides of lumbar spine c. at the back wall of the abdominal cavity on the level of lumbar vertebrae d. in the area of greater (false) pelvis e. in the area of lesser (true) pelvis f. as a pair, bean-shaped organ at the sides of lumbar spine g. as a pair, bean-shaped organ at the sides of the sacral spine h. at the sides of the thoracic spine at the back wall of the abdominal cavity 405. Kidneys of man produce: a. urine b. urea c. adiuretin d. renin e. erythropoietin f. urine, which contains water and all the soluble components in equal concentration as those in the blood plasma g. urine, which contains water, urea, a small amount of organic substances and inorganic substances h. renin, which influences the formation of blood 406. Which of the following substances are not found in the urine of healthy man: a. increased concentration of glucose b. pus c. creatinine d. uric acid e. erythrocytes f. leukocytes g. urea h. NaCl, K+, Na+, Mg2+, Ca2+ 407. The following is a part of the nephron: a. afferent arteriole b. efferent arteriole c. glomerulus d. Bowman ́s capsule e. collecting duct f. renal pelvis g. renal calyx h. distal convoluted tubule 408. Nephron enters into the: a. Malpighian corpuscle b. collecting duct c. ureter d. urinary bladder e. proximal convoluted tubule f. distal convoluted tubule g. proximal collecting duct h. distal collecting duct 409. Urea in the human body is formed in the: a. kidneys and is excreted out of the body b. liver c. kidneys and the liver d. kidneys by the filtration of blood e. nephrons and is excreted through kidneys out of the body f. the liver and is excreted in form of bile g. glomerulus h. liver during the degradation of old erythrocytes 410. The filtrate which is produced in the glomerulus of human kidney: a. is called primary urine b. is called final urine c. is identical with human blood plasma d. is identical with human blood plasma without blood amino acids e. is identical with human blood plasma without blood proteins f. contains also blood and proteins g. changes into the primary urine by the passage through the kidney tubules h. changes into the final urine by the passage through the kidney tubules 411. Primary urine of man: a. is formed by the filtration in the collecting tubules b. creates by the filtration in the renal (Malpighian) corpuscle c. creates in the process of reabsorption and excretion in the kidney tubules d. is produced about 1,5 litre per 24 hours e. is produced about 170 l per hour f. is produced about 170 l per 24 hours g. creates by the filtration in the urinary tubules h. is a filtrate of blood flowing through the glomerular capillaries 412. The following is part of Malpighian (renal) corpuscle: a. kidney corpuscle b. glomerulus c. Bowman capsule d. proximal convoluted tubule e. distal convoluted tubule f. Mendel ́s loop g. Henle ́s loop h. capillary network 413. The driving force of filtration in the kidneys is: a. osmotic pressure b. blood pressure c. activity of the glomerular walls d. waving of afferent arterioles e. peristaltic waves f. gravitation g. under-pressure developed by the kidney h. atmospheric pressure 414. In the tubules of human kidneys: a. water, salts, glucose, and vitamin C are filtered into primary urine b. proteins, erythrocytes and leukocytes are reabsorbed from primary urine back into blood c. waste substances are filtered into primary urine d. considerable amount of water, salts, glucose, amino acids is reabsorbed from primary urine back into blood e. glucose disappears normally from urine and waste substances are concentrated f. the amount of the passing liquid is decreased g. concentration of urea increases in the passing liquid h. concentration of uric acid, creatinine, and ammonia increases in the passing liquid 415. The liquid filtered through the capillary walls into the Bowman ́s capsule is called: a. primary urine b. secondary urine c. glomerular filtrate d. primary urine, which contains salts, uric acid, urea, glucose e. primary urine, which contains high-molecular substances f. final urine g. primary urine, which normally contains salts, uric acid, urea, proteins, blood cells h. tubular excrete 416. During the primary urine passage through the convoluted tubules and Henle ́s loop: a. some waste substances are excreted into the urine b. part of water is reabsorbed c. waste substances are reabsorbed d. part of salts and substances important for the body is reabsorbed back e. waste substances pass into the blood through the tubules walls f. blood is filtered g. primary urine is filtered h. most of the substances and water are absorbed in distal convoluted tubule 417. The role of human excretory system is to excrete following from the body: a. excessive water b. indigestible remains of food c. waste products of metabolism d. excessive heat e. excessive amount of salt f. old and damaged blood cells g. excessive high molecular compounds h. nitrogenous waste products of protein metabolism 418. Kidneys of man: a. have also endocrine function b. have also exocrine function c. produce urea d. are a place where urine is formed e. produce and release renin into blood f. produce and release erythropoietin into blood g. produce and release renin into blood, which influences formation of blood h. produce and release erythropoietin into blood, which influences blood pressure 419. Function of human kidneys is regulated: a. by renin, the neurohypophysis hormone b. hormonally, by vasopressin, which regulates water reabsorption in the kidney tubules c. by the hormone adiuretin, released into the blood stream from the neurohypophysis d. neurohumorally e. neurally by the antidiuretic hormone f. neurally and hormonally g. hormonally by erythropoietin, which regulates water reabsorption in the kidney tubules h. hormonally by vasopressin, which regulates the amount of filtered blood 420. The following are the basic structural and functional units of the kidney: a. glomerulus b. kidney corpuscle c. glomerulus, Bowman capsule, afferent and efferent arterioles d. Malpighian corpuscle e. cortex on the surface and medulla inside f. nephron g. Malpighian gland h. ureter 421. Proximal (1st) convoluted tubule and distal (2nd) convoluted tubule are interconnected by: a. glomerulus b. Bowman capsule c. Henle ́s U-shaped loop d. Henle ́s ball-shaped loop e. afferent arteriole f. collecting tubule g. efferent arteriole h. renal U-shaped tubule 422. Urine is formed in the nephron in the process of: a. filtration of primary urine b. glomerular filtration of blood c. tubular reabsorption d. dialysis e. tubular secretion f. exocytosis g. translation h. diapedesis 423. In human urine the following is concentrated: a. proteins b. blood cells c. glucose d. uric acid e. urea f. lactic acid g. creatinine h. amino acids 424. Pineal gland: a. produces hormone, which inhibits the formation of sexual hormones b. produces hormone, which activates the formation of sexual hormones c. is a functional part of hypophysis d. produces growth hormone e. reacts to the intensity of light f. produces melatonin g. produces melanin h. produces melanotropic hormone 425. Hormones of the thyroid gland: a. influence the intensity of metabolism b. are thyroxine and thyronine c. have structural function d. influence the activity of muscles e. are formed in the hypophysis f. maintain concentration of calcium ions in blood plasma g. increase basal metabolic rate h. regulate e.g. amphibian metamorphosis 426. Parathyroid glands appear for the first time in: a. mammals b. insects c. amphibians d. birds e. fish f. invertebrates g. molluscs h. reptiles 427. Insulin: a. decreases the level of glucose in blood b. increases the deposition of glycogen in the liver and muscles c. increases the level of glucose in blood d. accelerates the conversion of glycogen into glucose in the liver e. increases the formation of fats in the pancreas f. decreases the deposition of glycogen in the liver and muscles g. influences the metabolism of saccharides conversely compared to glucagon h. speeds the conversion of glucose into glycogen 428. Hormones: a. exerts their effect non-specifically on target cells of different tissues b. exerts their effect specifically on target cells of different tissues c. have structural function d. are source of ATP e. directly participate in proteosynthesis f. are active for several minutes or days when secreted into bodily fluids g. are highly effective organic substances, which influence the activity of target organs h. regulate the activity of target cells 429. Hormonal control: a. occurs also in invertebrates b. appears in vertebrates for the first time c. differs in vertebrates in comparison to invertebrates d. does not differ in vertebrates in comparison to invertebrates e. is replaced by nerve regulation in invertebrates f. acts quicker than nerve regulations g. acts slower than nerve regulations h. is also directly influenced by the nervous system 430. Anterior pituitary lobe of vertebrates: a. produces prolactin b. produces melanotropic hormone c. is called adenohypophysis d. is called neurohypophysis e. produces hormones controlling the activity of adrenal glands f. produces growth hormone g. produces vasopressin h. produces oxytocin 431. Facultative learning: a. occurs only at an early age of animals b. is not limited by age c. occurs practically during the whole life of an individual d. leads to the improvement of the activity of the animal e. is e.g. imprinting f. is adaptation to endogenous biological rhythms g. is a basis of defensive reactions of young animals h. occurs on the basis of unconditioned reflexes 432. The term “homeostasis” was introduced by: a. J. G. Mendel b. J. B. Lamarck c. W. B. Cannon d. M. Malpighi e. J. E. Purkyně f. Avicena g. Galenos h. A. Leewenhoek 433. Which of the following belongs to the endocrine glands: a. adrenal gland b. spleen c. hypophysis d. pineal gland e. gallbladder f. neurohypophysis g. glandula thyreoidea h. epiglottis 434. Mark the correct statement: a. human hypophysis is anatomically and functionally divided into lobes of different origin b. human hypophysis is anatomically and functionally divided into lobes of identical origin c. human hypophysis is located in the hindbrain d. human hypophysis is located in the diencephalon e. human adenohypophysis is of mesodermal origin f. human adenohypophysis is of ectodermal origin g. pineal body produces the hormone called melanin h. pineal body produces the hormone called thyroxine 435. The function of hormones in the human body is to: a. regulate metabolism b. control production and secretion of other hormones c. influence the growth and development of tissues and the organism d. transfer the so-called chemical information to target tissues e. influence the activity of individual cells f. supply energy for specific cell mechanisms g. control intra-cellular processes according to the needs of the organism h. control non-specific functions 436. Which of the following is not a true endocrine gland: a. middle lobe of the pituitary gland b. hypothalamus c. thyroid gland d. pancreas e. neurohypophysis f. adenohypophysis g. posterior lobe of the hypophysis h. anterior lobe of the hypophysis 437. Hormones produced in the human hypothalamus directly regulate: a. activity of ovaries b. activity of the anterior pituitary c. activity of the uterus d. production of milk e. metabolism of proteins f. activity of the adrenal cortex g. metabolism of calcium h. management of water level in the organism 438. The anterior lobe of human hypophysis is under the direct regulation of: a. hypothalamus b. a part of the diencephalon c. posterior lobe of the hypophysis d. parathyroid glands e. pineal gland f. thalamus g. medulla oblongata h. midbrain 439. Human adenohypophysis produces: a. protein hormones b. thyroxine c. thyrotropin d. antidiuretic hormone e. steroid hormones f. calciferol g. vasopressin h. follicle-stimulating hormone 440. Which of the following hormones of adenohypophysis regulate the function of the human corpus luteum: a. follicle-stimulating hormone b. luteinizing hormone c. progesterone d. thyrotropin e. estradiol f. estriol g. oxytocin h. insulin 441. Which of the following hormones of adenohypophysis regulate the function of human ovarian follicles: a. prolactin b. follicle-stimulating hormone c. thyroxine d. adiuretin e. thyrotropin f. glandotropic hormone g. estriol h. gonadotropic hormone 442. Human growth hormone: a. supports the production and transport of proteins b. is produced by the anterior pituitary together with the luteinizing hormone c. supports the synthesis of RNA in the cells d. is produced by the hypothalamus together with oxytocin e. is produced by the anterior lobe of hypophysis together with the thyrotropin f. concentration decreases during the lifetime g. concentration is stable during the lifetime h. causes acromegaly if it is overproduced in adulthood 443. Excessive growth – gigantism – in human is caused by: a. hypersecretion of the growth hormone b. hypersecretion of somatotropin c. excessive intake of food d. insufficient energy expenditure e. consumption of fat rich food f. overproduction of thyroxine g. lack of thyroxine h. lack of the growth hormone 444. Human thyrotropin is produced by: a. thyroid gland b. adenohypophysis c. hypothalamus d. anterior lobe of hypophysis e. neurohypophysis f. adrenal cortex g. liver h. pancreas 445. Human thyrotropin: a. is glandotropic hormone b. supports the growth and activity of parathyroid glands c. is produced by the parathyroid glands at the decrease of thyroxine level d. is gonadotropic hormone e. is produced by the pineal gland f. supports the growth and activity of the thyroid gland g. stimulates the production of hormones in the adrenal glands h. is produced by the adenohypophysis 446. The following hormones are produced by the posterior pituitary: a. adrenocorticotropic hormone b. calciferol c. luteinizing hormone d. adrenalin e. antidiuretic hormone f. cortisol g. oxytocin h. vasopressin 447. Human oxytocin: a. regulates the activity of the anterior pituitary b. promotes release of milk form mammary glands c. influences maturation of ovarian follicles d. accelerates the metabolism of nutrients e. promotes contractions of uterine myometrium f. increases tissue oxidation g. stimulates the development of mammary gland h. initiates ovulation 448. Antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin in man are produced: a. by the thalamus b. exclusively outside the pituitary gland c. by the hypothalamus d. upon the stimulus of the growth hormone e. by the pineal gland f. by the neurohypophysis g. by the adenohypophysis h. by the posterior lobe of the hypophysis 449. In human kidneys adiuretin influences: a. reabsorption of potassium b. reabsorption of glucose c. walls of arterioles, where it decreases the pressure d. reabsorption of sodium e. reabsorption of water f. reabsorption of amino-acids and magnesium g. water level management h. walls of arterioles, where it increases the pressure 450. Production of thyroid gland hormones in man depends mainly on the supply of: a. potassium b. magnesium c. manganese d. zinc e. iron f. cobalt g. calcium h. iodine 451. Human thyroxine is produced by: a. glandula thyreoidea b. hypophysis c. adenohypophysis d. thyroid gland e. hypothalamic-pituitary system f. parathyroid glands g. pituitary gland h. placenta 452. Secretion of human parathyroid hormone is regulated by: a. the activity of hypothalamus and thalamus b. adenohypophysis c. neurohypophysis d. mineralocorticoids e. humoral signals from bone cells f. activity of hypophysis g. the level of calcium in the lymphatic fluid h. the level of calcium in blood plasma 453. Main regulator of the calcium level in the human blood is: a. hormone produced by anterior pituitary b. parathormone c. antidiuretic hormone d. testosterone e. parathyroid hormone f. prolactin g. hormone produced by adrenal cortex h. auxin 454. Hormones produced by human adrenal medulla: a. decrease the level of glucose in blood b. are mineralocorticoids, glucocorticoids and androgens c. stimulate retention of sodium in the organism d. increase the level of blood sugar e. influence the heart activity f. increase the level of blood sugar except for glucose g. are aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone h. are also called stress hormones 455. Mineralocorticoids in the human organism: a. mobilize the energy resources in stressful situation b. influence with the metabolism of nutrients, mainly proteins c. influence the sodium and potassium metabolism d. markedly change the diameter of blood vessels and increase the heart activity e. increase reabsorption of sodium and excretion of potassium in the organism f. influence the metabolism of glucose g. influence the sodium and selenium metabolism h. influence the properties of extra-cellular fluid 456. Secretion of glucocorticoids is regulated: a. by the neurohypophysis b. by the anterior pituitary c. by the adrenocorticotropic hormone d. hormonally e. humorally f. by the posterior lobe of hypophysis g. by the hypothalamic-pituitary complex h. by the adenohypophysis 457. Glucocorticoids: a. are produced by islets of Langerhans b. are hormones produced by adrenal medulla c. are hormones produced by adrenal cortex d. influence protein metabolism e. provide resistance of organism to stress f. increase protein breakdown g. depress immune responses h. increase proteins production 458. Human insulin: a. increases glucose transport into cells b. increases the conversion of proteins to saccharides c. supports the production of proteins d. increases the level of glucose in blood e. decreases the level of glucose in blood f. is produced by the pancreas g. is a steroid hormone h. is a protein hormone 459. Deficiency of insulin in human causes: a. decreased level of glucose in blood b. nanism c. cretinism d. elevated level of sucrose in blood e. hyperglycemia f. delay of both physical and mental development in females g. diabetes h. increased level of glucose in blood 460. Which of the following hormones in human control management of water level: a. glucagon b. oxytocin c. antidiuretic hormone d. thyrotropin e. vasopressin f. thyroxine g. adiuretin h. cortisol 461. Which of the following hormones in human directly increase the level of glucose in blood: a. noradrenalin and corticotropin b. hormones of the adrenal medulla c. glucocorticoids d. insulin e. adrenalin and corticotropin f. adrenalin and noradrenalin g. adrenalin and insulin h. glucagon 462. Glucagon in human: a. influences the concentration of blood sugar b. influences glycemia c. is glucocorticoid d. is glandotropic hormone e. may worsen the diabetes condition raising blood glucose level too high f. is digestive enzyme g. is produced by the parathyroid glands h. causes acromegaly 463. Mark the correct answer: a. hypothalamus is the part of diencephalon b. neurohypophysis is not true endocrine gland c. insulin is secreted by islets of Langerhans of the stomach gland d. adrenocorticotropic hormone regulates the secretion of glucocorticoids e. testosterone regulates the maturation of ovarian follicles f. adenohypophysis is not true endocrine gland g. axons can be myelinated h. growth hormone is produced by the hypothalamus 464. Which of the following belongs to gonadotropic hormones: a. thyrotropin b. follicle-stimulating hormone c. prolactin d. somatotropin e. adrenocorticotropic hormone f. luteinizing hormone g. oxytocin h. antidiuretic hormone 465. Parathyroid glands of human produce: a. parathormone b. thyroxine c. oxytocin d. hormone influencing neuromuscular excitability e. hormone regulating the level of sodium in blood f. hormone regulating the level of potassium in blood g. hormone regulating the level of calcium in blood h. hormone hypersecretion of which causes Basedow’s disease 466. Basedow’s disease: a. is caused by hypersecretion of the parathyroid glands b. is an autoimmune disorder that causes hypersecretion of thyroxine c. symptom is decreased metabolic rate d. symptom is increased metabolic rate e. is caused by the deficiency of iodine f. is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism g. is caused by hypersecretion of adiuretin h. is caused by hyposecretion of adiuretin 467. Nerve tissue is composed of: a. glial cells b. nerve cells c. neurons d. neurofilaments e. cells providing nutrition for neurons f. multinucleated cells g. anucleated highly specialized cells h. vacuolated cells 468. Neuromuscular junction: a. is a chemical synapse formed by the contact between a motor neuron and a muscle fiber b. receives the signal from the central nervous system and changes it into a stimulus c. works as a simple nerve synapse d. produces a neurotransmitter - noradrenalin e. is a basic building unit of myofibrils f. is sensitive to some poisons g. provides the nutrition for muscle cells h. is an important part of the motor unit 469. Neuron (nerve cell): a. is a basic structural and functional unit of the nervous system b. consists of a cell body and cellular extensions c. has one efferent extension - axon d. has one efferent extension - dendrite e. has dendrites, that transmit impulses toward the cell body f. has dendrites, that transmit impulses away from the cell body g. has an afferent axon h. communicates with other neurons via synapses 470. Nerve fibres of the spinal cord form: a. white matter surrounding the grey matter b. grey matter surrounded by the white matter c. white matter surrounded by the grey matter d. grey matter surrounding the white matter e. both grey matter and white matter f. a basis of the reflex arch g. spinal central canal h. brain stem 471. Spinal cord: a. is a centre of visual and auditory reflexes b. is phylogenetically the oldest part of the nervous system c. is phylogenetically the youngest part of the nervous system d. is a reflex centre regulating the movement of muscles in the limbs e. controls some of the autonomic functions f. is a centre of posture and balance regulation g. influences physiological processes, e.g. food intake h. mediates emotional responses 472. Autonomic nervous system: a. innervates internal organs and vessels b. stems from the spinal cord and the brain c. stems from the spinal cord only d. stems from the brain only e. is a part of the vegetative nervous system, which is phylogenetically older than the somatic system f. is a part of the vegetative nervous system, which is phylogenetically younger than the somatic system g. controls the movement of skeletal muscles h. controls the conscious or voluntary activities of the body 473. Afferent extensions of nerve cells: a. transmit impulses toward the cell bodies b. are called neurons c. create synapses with other cells d. are called neurites e. are called dendrites f. transmit impulses away from the cell bodies g. are called axons h. are short and extensively branched 474. The following are important functional properties of neurons: a. excitability b. conductivity c. ability of cellular division d. ability to react to stimuli e. motility f. ability of diapedesis g. ability to conduct nerve signals without the information loss or change h. ability of contraction 475. Midbrain of mammals: a. is a centre of visual and auditory reflexes b. keeps the upright posture of head and body c. is the main coordination centre of voluntary movements d. regulates body temperature e. controls the heart activity and circulation of body fluids f. mediates emotional responses g. contains auditory cortex h. is phylogenetically the youngest part of the nervous system 476. The centre regulating spontaneous breathing is in the: a. cerebellum b. medulla oblongata c. pons d. cerebral cortex e. hindbrain f. diencephalon g. hypophysis h. cerebrum 477. Cerebral cortex: a. has specific areas, the so-called cortical areas b. is well developed in e.g. the elephant c. begins to evolve in reptiles d. is phylogenetically youngest structure of the nervous system e. forms only a thin layer in birds f. has its surface folded only in evolutionary older mammals g. collects information coming only from the surrounding environment h. has the olfactory receptors 478. Cerebral cortex is best developed in: a. primates b. reptiles c. sharks and dolphins d. elephants and dolphins e. mammals f. birds g. amphibians h. fish 479. Cerebellum: a. maintains the body equilibrium and coordinates movement b. is centre of respiration c. is a centre of sneezing d. is a centre of visual and auditory reflex movements e. controls the activities of the cerebral cortex f. mediates reactions to pain and cold g. is the main centre of autonomic functions h. receives impulses from receptors of the inner ear and muscles 480. The following part of the brain contains feeding centre, satiety centre and thirst centre: a. thalamus b. hypothalamus c. medulla oblongata d. forebrain e. cerebellum f. cerebral cortex g. part of the diencephalon h. pons 481. The following belongs to the manifestations of lower nervous activity: a. inborn reactions to stimuli b. unconditioned reflexes c. acquired reactions to stimuli d. conditioned reflexes e. learning f. instincts g. emotions h. fear 482. Conditioned reflex: a. is inborn b. is a manifestation of the higher nervous activity c. is a basis for instinctive behaviour d. is acquired during ontogenesis of an individual e. is acquired during phylogenesis f. leads to the formation of new temporal connection in CNS g. belongs to basic mechanisms of learning h. does not require any training for its development 483. The following belongs to the higher nervous activity: a. conditioned reflex b. unconditioned reflex c. learning d. instinct e. fear f. thinking and reasoning g. parental instinct h. memory 484. Dendrites: a. transmit impulses toward the nervous endings b. usually are highly branched c. have supportive and nutritional function in nervous tissue d. usually receive the information in form of adequate stimulus e. are input portions of neuron f. are exit portions of neuron g. form a tree-shaped array of processes extending from the cell body h. always are myelinated 485. Site of communication between two neurons or between a neuron and an effector cell is called: a. syllabism b. syngamy c. synapse d. symbiosis e. systole f. syndesmosis g. synergy h. synod 486. Human neuron: a. is an anucleated cell with all the organelles typical for the animal cell b. contains nucleus, nucleolus and all other organelles typical for the animal cell c. was for the first time described in detail by J.E. Purkyně d. has numerous axons and one long dendrite e. processes are completely myelinated f. is a specialized cell arrested in the G0 phase of the cell cycle g. is able to divide throughout its lifetime h. is supported and protected by glial cells 487. Mark the correct answer: a. synapses ensure one-way transmission of impulses in a living person b. neuronal synapse is a functional contact between the membranes of two cells, of which at least one is a neuron c. synaptic transmission of impulse can be mediated chemically d. the most important neurotransmitters in man are adrenalin and noradrenalin e. the number of synapses in the brain of man equals to the number of neurons f. nervous stimuli are always excitatory g. synapse is a structure that permits a neuron to transmit an impulse to another neuron h. reflex is a voluntary response to a stimulus 488. The average weight of the human adult brain is about: a. 2 500 g b. 1 300 g c. 250 g d. 500 g e. 5 kg f. 25 g g. 0.8 kg h. 750 g 489. The inner part of the cerebral hemispheres of the human is mainly made up of: a. grey matter b. white matter c. light matter d. myelinated axons e. nerve cell bodies f. reticular formation g. cerebrospinal fluid h. basal ganglia 490. Mark the correct statement: a. cerebral cortex regulates the conscious activity b. thalamus is a centre of regulation for internal organs c. basal ganglia regulate accessory movements and muscle tone d. the centre for visual and auditory reflexes is situated in the cerebellum e. the speech area is situated in the dominant cerebral hemisphere f. the number of neural synapses is higher than number of neurons in the human brain g. the estimated number of synapses in the human brain is 1014 h. there is about one billion synapses in human brain 491. The following is true about the ventricles of the human brain: a. brain has 5 ventricles b. brain has 4 ventricles c. brain has 3 ventricles d. three of the brain ventricles can be found in hemispheres of the cerebrum e. two of the brain ventricles can be found in hemispheres of the cerebrum f. only one of the brain ventricles can be found in the cerebrum g. one of the brain ventricles can be found in the diencephalon h. there is no exchange of substances between cerebrospinal fluid in brain ventricles and the blood 492. Which of the following are the parts of the peripheral nervous system: a. sensory division b. brain and spinal cord c. somatic nervous system d. autonomic nervous system e. external division f. internal division g. cranial nerves h. spinal nerves 493. Association areas of the human cerebral cortex: a. have a relationship to formation of memory traces b. are areas for abstract thinking, reasoning, learning c. can be found in the cerebellar cortex d. are the main centre of vegetative control e. are made up of basal ganglia f. are areas of coordination of nerve functions g. are areas of formation of the consciousness h. maintain homeostasis 494. The main centre regulating body temperature of man is in: a. sweat glands b. hypothalamus c. liver d. cerebellum e. autonomous ganglia f. medulla oblongata g. a part of diencephalon h. skin 495. Reticular formation of the human brain: a. contributes to regulating muscle tone b. helps to maintain attention and alertness c. regulates the defence reflexes (cough and sneezing) d. receives input from receptors for the sense of smell e. influences the sleep and the awakening f. controls voluntary movements of the eyes g. maintains the consciousness h. is active during awakening from sleep 496. Midbrain of man: a. is situated in close neighbourhood to the pons b. is a centre of olfactory and auditory reflexes c. contains the centres of the cranial nerves V and VI d. is a centre of gustatory and auditory reflexes e. is a centre of visual and auditory reflexes f. contains four rounded elevations in the posterior part g. is a centre of olfactory and visual reflexes h. is associated with cranial nerves III and IV 497. Cerebellum of man: a. participates in maintenance of the balance and movements coordination b. has the white matter on its surface and the grey matter inside c. is a centre of respiration d. receives impulses from the cerebral cortex e. regulates and controls the activity of the cerebral cortex f. has the grey matter on its surface and the white matter inside g. is the main centre of vegetative control h. receives impulses from receptors in inner ear, from the skin receptors, muscular and tendon receptors 498. The following is the main function of the human cerebellum: a. production of hormones b. analysis of visual information c. regulation of muscle tone d. formation of the conscious activity e. realisation of the voluntary movements f. maintenance of posture and equilibrium g. realisation of defence reflexes h. coordination of movement 499. The following vital centres can be found in the human medulla oblongata: a. thermoregulatory centre b. visual centre c. centre of balance and posture d. reflex centre for coughing and sneezing e. respiratory centre f. coordination centres of blood circulation and mental functions g. satiety centre h. cardiovascular centre 500. Respiratory and cardiovascular centres of man are located in: a. cerebellum b. thalamus c. medulla oblongata d. spinal cord e. hypothalamus f. cerebral cortex g. hypophysis h. midbrain 501. Human thalamus: a. is a part of hypothalamus b. is a part of diencephalon c. together with hypothalamus is a part of diencephalon d. is a part of mesencephalon e. is the main centre for regulation of the activity of internal organs f. has the centre of speech situated in its lower part g. is the part of the brain, where the cranial nerves III and IV stem h. regulates the activity of all endocrine glands 502. Vasomotor and cardiovascular centres of man are located in: a. diencephalon b. medulla oblongata c. hypophysis d. spinal cord e. dominant hemisphere f. aorta g. reticular formation h. cerebral cortex 503. How many pairs of cranial nerves stem from human brain: a. 7 b. 9 c. 14 d. 16 e. 31 f. 33 g. 11 h. 12 504. Nerve fibres of the spinal cord of human: a. form the white matter surrounded by the grey matter b. form the grey matter surrounding the white matter c. are functionally divided into motor and sensory d. form numerous channels e. contain myelinated axons f. form the white matter surrounding the grey matter g. form the grey matter surrounded by the white matter h. do not normally occur 505. The number of spinal nerve pairs in human is: a. 12 b. 31 c. 11 d. 14 e. 7 f. 60 g. uncountable h. 22 506. The following belong to the peripheral nervous system of human: a. medulla oblongata and peripheral nerves b. coccygeal and central part of spinal cord c. sacral and coccygeal nerves d. sacral and cervical nerves e. lumbar and thoracic nerves f. cranial nerves g. spinal nerves h. cranial and spinal nerves 507. The following protective layers cover the brain and the spinal cord of man: a. pia mater b. dura mater c. arachnoid mater d. subarachnoid layer e. subdural space f. medulla g. thick outermost layer made of fibrous connective tissue h. middle layer made of web-like strands of connective tissue 508. Arachnoid mater of the human brain: a. is a highly vascularized connective tissue membrane b. is a poorly vascularized connective tissue membrane c. is a thin transparent avascular connective tissue membrane d. is a layer that firmly adheres to the brain and spinal cord e. is the middle layer of the meninges f. creates callosal commissure g. is also called a “gate to consciousness“ h. is a spider web-like membrane 509. Evolutionary youngest part of the human brain is: a. hindbrain b. midbrain c. pons d. cerebellum e. medulla oblongata f. cerebrum g. thalamus h. mesencephalon 510. Proprioceptors of human: a. are gustatory receptors b. are pain receptors c. sense the motions and position of the body d. are thermoreceptors e. are mechanoreceptors f. sense the motions and position of the body and are localized in the middle ear g. sense the position and motions of the body and are localized in the joints h. sense the position and motions of the body and are localized in muscles and tendons 511. The following nerves conduct impulses from the central nervous system to skeletal muscles of human: a. vegetative b. statoacoustic c. spinal d. cranial e. somatic f. motor g. autonomic h. sensitive 512. Immediate involuntary response evoked by a given stimulus is called: a. receptor b. neurite c. impulse d. axon e. reflex f. sense g. stress h. effector 513. The reflex arc of human: a. is always localized to the spinal cord b. is a direct single neuron connection between the receptor and the effector c. has never any part of its path situated in the head d. has afferent and efferent path e. is a nerve connection between the receptor and effector through the central nervous system f. arises as a response of organism to the receptor stimulation g. can be autonomic or somatic h. can be monosynaptic or polysynaptic 514. Higher nervous activity of human includes the following: a. vomiting reflex b. conditioned reflex c. unconditioned reflex d. learning e. stereotypical instinctive reactions f. emotions g. creative arts h. thinking and abstraction 515. The following are manifestations of lower nervous activity of human: a. inborn reactions to stimuli b. laziness c. unconditioned reflexes d. criminal offences e. alcoholism f. creative arts g. planning h. foreseeing 516. The following is the main control and integration centre of autonomic functions of human: a. plexus solaris b. thalamus c. a part of diencephalon d. vegetative nerves of the thorax and abdomen e. hypothalamus f. vagus nerve g. cerebral cortex h. medulla oblongata 517. Sympathetic division of human autonomous system: a. stems from the thoracic and the lumbar spinal cord b. is dominant in stressful situations c. stems from the brain and the sacral spinal cord d. induces secretion of saliva e. induces secretion of sweat f. decreases blood pressure g. increases of blood pressure h. increases heart rate 518. Parasympathetic division of human autonomous system: a. stems from the brain and the sacral spinal cord b. increases peristalsis for normal digestion c. stems from the thoracic and lumbar spinal cord d. induces secretion of saliva e. decreases heart rate f. innervates most of the organs together with the sympathetic division g. usually functions in opposition to sympathetic division h. increases the secretion of intestinal juice 519. Olfactory centres in the human brain are localized to: a. occipital lobe of the cerebral cortex b. cerebral cortex c. telencephalon d. brain white matter e. mucous membrane of the upper part of the nasal cavity f. midbrain g. frontal lobes h. cortex of parietal lobe 520. Mark the correct statement about receptors: a. exteroceptors monitor conditions in the internal environment b. exteroceptors are sensitive to stimuli originating outside the body c. exteroceptors provide information about the external environment d. exteroceptors provide information about body position, muscle length and tension, and the position and movement of joints e. proprioceptors are located in muscles, tendons, joints f. proprioceptors are located in muscles, tendons, epidermis g. proprioceptors are sensitive to stimuli originating outside the body h. proprioceptors provide information about body position, muscle length and tension, and the position and movement of joints 521. Which of the following is not true: a. mechanoreceptors are sensitive to mechanical stimuli b. mechanoreceptors detect chemicals c. nociceptors detect chemicals d. nociceptors respond to painful stimuli e. chemoreceptors detect chemicals in mouth (smell), nose (taste), and body fluids f. chemoreceptors detect chemicals in mouth (taste), nose (smell), and body fluids g. thermoreceptors detect light h. photoreceptors detect light that strikes the organ of Corti in the eye 522. The following primary tastes can be distinguished by humans: a. sour, sweet, bitter, salty, and savory b. umami, salty, bitter, sweet, and sour c. sour, sweet, bitter, savory, and cold d. hot, sweet, bitter, salty, and cold e. sour, sweet, bitter, hot, and cold f. umami, sweet, bitter, salty, and cold g. sour, sweet, bitter, hot, and savory h. sour, sweet, bitter, salty, and rotten 523. Olfactory receptors: a. are mechanoreceptors b. are chemoreceptors c. detect chemicals in the mouth d. detect chemicals in the nose e. detect chemicals in mouth and nose f. are localized to the olfactory epithelium that occupies the superior part of the nasal cavity g. are localized to the olfactory epithelium that occupies the superior part of the oral cavity h. can detect more numerous types of stimuli compared to gustatory receptors 524. The following sound frequencies are audible to human: a. 500 Hz b. from 1 000 Hz to 3 000 Hz c. 22 000 Hz d. 22 500 Hz e. from 1 Hz to 10 Hz f. from 16 Hz to 20 000 Hz g. 10 Hz h. 10 000 Hz 525. Krause corpuscle of the skin can sense: a. pressure and vibrations b. cold c. pain d. sound e. warmth f. position g. movement h. odour 526. The following structures can be found in the eyeball interior: a. lens b. vitreous body c. aqueous humour d. cornea e. sclera f. choroid g. uvea h. lacrimal glands 527. Retina of the human eye: a. is the inner layer of the eyeball b. is the superficial layer of the eyeball c. is the middle layer of the eyeball d. contains photoreceptors e. contains taste buds f. contains blind spot g. contains rods responsible for colour vision h. contains cones responsible for colour vision 528. The following are refraction abnormalities of the eye: a. myopia also called near-sightedness b. hyperopia also called far-sightedness c. myopia also called far-sightedness d. hyperopia also called near-sightedness e. presbyopia related to aging process f. astigmatism also called far-sightedness g. astigmatism in which the eye does not focus light evenly on the sclera h. astigmatism in which the cornea has an irregular curvature 529. The area of retina with the highest visual resolution (sharpness) is: a. blind spot b. macula lutea c. macula purpura d. lens e. choroid f. centre of the macula lutea containing only cones g. centre of the macula lutea containing only rods h. the place where the optic nerves exit the eyeball 530. Organ of Corti is located in: a. external ear b. middle ear c. inner ear d. cochlea e. eardrum f. auditory canal g. tympanic membrane h. auricle 531. Auditory ossicles are: a. the smallest bones in the body b. the biggest bones in the body c. malleus d. stapes e. hammer f. incus g. pliers h. stirrup 532. Inner ear: a. contains bony labyrinth and membranous labyrinth b. contains bony labyrinth and tendinous labyrinth c. contains auditory ossicles d. contains eardrum e. contains cochlea f. contains semicircular canals g. contains vestibule h. contains utricle and auditory ossicles 533. The following is true about sense of equilibrium and balance: a. there are two types of equilibrium b. dynamic equilibrium refers to the maintenance of the position of the body relative to the force of gravity c. static equilibrium is the maintenance of body position in response to acceleration or deceleration d. receptor organs for equilibrium are collectively called the vestibular apparatus e. vestibular apparatus sensing the equilibrium includes saccule, utricle, and semicircular ducts f. utricle is responsible for sense of dynamic equilibrium g. saccule is responsible for sense of static equilibrium h. semicircular ducts are responsible for sense of dynamic equilibrium 534. Human external (outer) ear contains: a. stapes b. auditory ossicles c. auricle d. external auditory canal e. cochlea f. organ of Corti g. eardrum h. tympanic membrane 535. Outward passage of leukocytes through intact vessel walls is called: a. sedimentation b. haematocrit c. diapedesis d. phagocytosis e. specific immunity reaction f. agglutination g. immunisation h. extravasation 536. The following cells are capable of diapedesis and phagocytosis: a. all types of agranulocytes b. B lymphocytes c. T lymphocytes d. eosinophil granulocytes e. neutrophil granulocytes f. erythrocytes g. monocytes h. all types of leukocytes 537. The following is true about innate immunity: a. it is nonspecific type of immunity b. it is acquired type of immunity c. it is based on the production of non-specific antibodies by B lymphocytes d. it is based on production of specific antibodies by B lymphocytes e. it is based on the formation of memory cells f. it is provided by the cells, which are capable of phagocytosis g. consists of barriers, defensive cells and chemical defences h. its responses are always the same regardless of the target 538. Antibodies: a. react with antigen on the principle of complementarity of bases b. are produced by the plasma cells which are formed by the transformation of B lymphocytes c. are proteins that react only with specific antigen d. are produced by T lymphocytes e. are proteins f. are produced by T lymphocytes after recognition of foreign antigen g. are also called agglutinogens h. are polynucleotides 539. Immune reaction of human organism: a. is entirely innate b. develops individually in everybody during ontogenesis c. is provided chiefly by the activity of phagocytes d. may be the cause of allergies e. is provided by lymphocytes f. includes the formation of antibodies g. can be nonspecific h. can be specific 540. Cell-mediated type of specific immunity is provided by: a. B lymphocytes b. neutrophil granulocytes c. T lymphocytes d. plasma cells e. monocytes f. all types of leukocytes g. specific type of lymphocytes h. platelets 541. The following are precursors of plasma cells: a. T lymphocytes b. B lymphocytes c. monocytes d. erythrocytes e. granulocytes f. plasmodia g. specific type of lymphocytes h. specific type of agranulocytes 542. Human T lymphocytes: a. are involved in humoral immunity b. produce antibodies c. are involved in passive immunity d. are infected by the HIV virus in AIDS e. are involved in cellular immunity f. are involved in antibody immunity g. destroy foreign antigens by phagocytosis h. produce immunoglobulins 543. The following are organs and structures of the human immune system: a. spleen b. blood vessels c. lymphoid tissue in tendons d. lymphoid tissue in the digestive system e. thymus f. lymph nodes g. tonsils h. lymphatic organs 544. Phagocytosis provided by the cells of immune system is based upon: a. formation of antibodies b. activity of lymphocytes in the tissues c. ingestion of foreign particles d. production of immunoglobulins e. ingestion of microorganisms f. replication of memory cells in the tissues g. transformation of lymphocytes into memory cells h. phagocytic activity of special cells 545. Antimicrobial substance naturally contained in human saliva is called: a. amylase b. lysine c. antibiotics d. lysosome e. bacteriophage f. lysozyme g. ptyalin h. phagosome 546. Diapedesis is: a. ingestion of microorganisms b. ability to walk on two limbs c. transformation of B lymphocytes into plasma cells d. filtration of blood plasma in the glomerulus e. outward passage of leukocytes through capillary walls f. erected walking on lower limbs g. secretory activity of lymphocytes h. outward passage of erythrocytes through capillary walls 547. The ingestion of microorganisms by immune cell is called: a. pinocytosis b. exocytosis c. diapedesis d. phagocytosis e. plasmolysis f. endocytosis g. disjunction h. chemotaxis 548. Human thymus: a. belongs to primary lymphatic organs b. is best developed in adult individuals c. is best developed in children d. is an organ where B lymphocytes mature e. is an organ where T lymphocytes mature f. is usually replaced by muscle tissue in adulthood g. is replaced by fat tissue in the adulthood h. is the biggest lymphatic organ 549. Tonsils: a. are the biggest lymphatic organ b. are the primary lymphatic organs c. are considered to be immunological filter of blood d. are localized in laryngeal epithelium e. are localized in pharyngeal epithelium f. are the part of the immune system g. produce lymphocytes h. are the vital organs and therefore cannot be surgically removed 550. Microorganisms in human body are usually captured: a. in the tissue fluid b. in blood plasma and lymph nodes c. on the surface of erythrocytes d. in the lymph nodes e. in blood plasma f. on the skin surface g. on the epithelial surface h. in the mucus of airways 551. Which of the following cells perform nonspecific line of immune response called phagocytosis: a. eosinophil granulocytes b. leukocytes and erythrocytes c. neutrophil granulocytes d. B lymphocytes e. T lymphocytes f. monocytes g. specific cells in blood and tissues h. some types of leukocytes 552. Agglutinins are: a. red blood cell antigens b. all antibodies in blood plasma c. agglutinogens of leukocytes d. products of agglutinogens e. responsible for agglutination of erythrocytes in incompatible blood transfusion f. specific type of antibodies in blood g. used in ABO blood group typing h. antigens present on the corpus luteum 553. Agglutinogens of human erythrocytes: a. are acquired b. are not inherited c. are heritable d. change during life time e. are red blood cells antigens f. induce the formation of antibodies g. belong to plasma proteins h. are used in blood typing 554. Blood groups of man are determined: a. by the presence of specific antigens in blood plasma b. by the ability of erythrocytes to produce antibodies c. by specific type of plasma proteins in any individual d. by the presence of specific antigens in the membrane of erythrocytes e. by the presence of antibodies in blood plasma f. genetically g. by the presence of immunoglobulins in the membrane of erythrocytes h. by the presence of gamma globulins in the membrane of erythrocytes 555. Blood plasma of a person with the blood group A contains: a. antigen A b. antigen B c. agglutinin anti-A d. agglutinin anti-B e. antibody anti-A f. antibody anti-B g. antigens A, B h. agglutinogen anti-A 556. Blood of a person with the blood group AB does not contain: a. antigen B b. antigen A c. antigens A, B d. antibody anti-A e. antibody anti-B f. agglutinin anti-A g. agglutinin anti-B h. agglutinins targeted against self-antigens 557. The blood group of child is A Rh+ and the blood group of its mother is O Rh- . Which man can be excluded as possible father of the child: a. AB Rh+ b. A Rh- c. B Rh+ d. A Rh+ e. 0 Rh+ f. 0 Rh- g. AB Rh- h. B Rh- 558. A person with the blood group B has: a. agglutinogen B and agglutinin anti-A b. agglutinogen A and agglutinin anti-B c. agglutinogen B in blood plasma and agglutinin anti-A on the surface of erythrocytes d. agglutinogen A on the surface of erythrocytes and agglutinin anti-B in blood plasma e. agglutinogen B on the surface of erythrocytes and agglutinin anti-A in blood plasma f. agglutinogen B and no agglutinins g. agglutinogen AB on the surface of erythrocytes h. agglutinins anti-A and anti-B in blood plasma 559. A person with the blood group O has: a. agglutinogens A and B in blood plasma b. no agglutinins c. agglutinins anti-A and anti-B in blood plasma d. anti-A and anti-B agglutinins, which are found on the surface of erythrocytes e. antigens A and B f. antibodies targeted against antigens A and B g. agglutinins anti-A and anti-B in the serum h. different antigens on the surface of erythrocytes 560. A person with the blood group AB: a. has antigens A and B b. has no agglutinins anti-A and anti-B c. has agglutinin anti-A d. has agglutinin anti-B e. has agglutinins anti-A and anti-B f. may never receive blood transfusion g. has no antibodies anti-A and anti-B h. is always Rh positive 561. Which of the following is the safe red blood cell transfusion: a. O Rh- donates the blood to O Rh+ b. B Rh+ donates the blood to A Rh+ c. A Rh- donates the blood to AB Rh- d. B Rh- donates the blood to AB Rh- e. A Rh+ donates the blood to A Rh- f. O Rh+ donates the blood to B Rh- g. AB Rh- donates the blood to O Rh- h. A Rh- donates the blood to A Rh+ 562. The following is true about the Rh blood system: a. it is named after the Rhesus monkey b. antibodies anti-Rh are not naturally occurring in blood plasma c. antibodies anti-Rh are naturally occurring in blood plasma d. antibody anti-Rh are produced, if Rh- individual receives Rh+ positive blood e. antibody anti-Rh are produced, if Rh+ individual receives Rh- blood f. naturally occurring antibodies exist in this system g. antibodies in this system are produced after immunization only h. antibodies anti-Rh can be produced in blood of Rh+ mother bearing the Rh- fetus 563. Specific immunity of human organism: a. is based on the ability of the organism to tolerate foreign antigen material b. develops individually during ontogenesis c. is carried out by macrophages d. may be cell-mediated e. is carried out by lymphocytes f. may be antibody-mediated g. is carried out by B but not T lymphocytes h. is carried out by monocytes 564. Adaptive immunity is: a. always non-specific b. specific c. for instance humoral type of immunity d. carried out by T lymphocytes that produce antibodies e. active f. carried out by basophil granulocytes g. carried out by B lymphocytes, which became activated upon contact with antigen h. carried out by memory cells 565. The following belong to innate (non-specific) immunity: a. vaccination b. formation of antibodies c. phagocytosis d. allergy e. immunisation f. antimicrobial substance in tears and saliva g. action of lysine h. action of lysozyme 566. Female uterine cycle is divided into: a. childhood, puberty, adulthood, menopause and senescence b. adulthood and climax c. 4 phases d. ovulation, pregnancy and postpartum period e. 3 phases f. ovulation and menstrual phase g. menstrual, proliferative, secretory and ischemic phase h. 5 phases 567. Female ovarian cycle is divided into: a. 3 phases b. follicular phase, ovulation and luteal phase c. menstrual, proliferative, secretory and ischemic phase d. 4 phases e. preovulatory phase, ovulation and postovulatory phase f. 2 phases g. ovulation, fertilization h. menarche and menopause 568. Corpus luteum is: a. formed from macula lutea in sexually mature females b. under the control of prolactin hormone c. “yellow body” d. produced in luteal phase of ovarian cycle e. produced from cells of uterine mucosa f. produced in postovulatory phase g. produced before ovulation phase h. temporary endocrine structure in female ovaries 569. Ovaries: a. are female gonads b. are male gonads c. produce sperm cells d. produce egg cells e. are paired oval structures on either side of the uterus in the pelvic cavity f. are paired oval structures on either side of the uterus in the thoracic cavity g. produce sex hormones h. produce ova 570. Human Graafian follicle produces: a. estrogens b. progesterone c. choriogonadotropin d. testosterone e. oxytocin f. follicle-stimulating hormone g. androgens h. gestagens 571. How many primary follicles mature and ovulate during a woman’s reproductive lifetime: a. 6000 b. 1400 c. 1460 d. 5000 e. 2000 f. 1200 g. 450 h. 40 572. Ovulation usually occurs: a. in the end of uterine cycle b. between day 14 - 16 of ovarian cycle c. on day 28 of ovarian cycle d. on day 24 of menstrual cycle e. once per lunar month f. during menopause g. regularly h. during menstruation 573. After ovulation human Graafian follicle: a. peels off and disappears b. may change to corpus luteum menstruationis c. is resorbed d. may change to corpus luteum graviditatis e. enters menopause f. produces hormones g. is changed into a temporary endocrine structure h. is autolysed 574. Which of the following belongs to male internal genital organs: a. prostate b. epididymis c. seminal vesicles d. scrotum e. penis f. glans penis g. ductus deferens h. corpus cavernosum 575. Which of the following belongs to male external genital organs: a. epididymis b. ductus deferens c. prostate d. scrotum e. penis f. seminal vesicles g. testis h. urinary bladder 576. Which of the following belongs to male gonads: a. seminal vesicles b. testicles c. paired oval glands in scrotum d. testes e. fallopian tubes f. ovaries g. epididymis h. glans penis 577. Which of the following is true of male reproductive system: a. testes produce sperms and the male sex hormone progesterone b. testes produce sperms and the male sex hormone testosterone c. system of ducts transports sperms d. system of ducts assists in maturation of sperms e. seminal vesicles secrete an alkaline fluid that contributes to sperms motility and viability f. uterus is the site of implantation of a fertilized ovum g. uterus is the site of development of the fetus during pregnancy h. ovaries produce ova and hormones 578. Which of the following hormones control sperm production and maturation: a. follicle-stimulating hormone b. growth hormone c. vasopressin d. calcitonin e. luteinizing hormone f. testosterone g. cortisol h. insulin 579. Ischemic phase of uterine cycle usually starts on: a. day 1-4 of the cycle b. day 5-9 of the cycle c. day 10-14 of the cycle d. day 14-18 of the cycle e. day 18 of the cycle f. day 21 of the cycle g. day 24 of the cycle h. day 28 of the cycle 580. Which of the following belongs to sexually transmitted diseases: a. AIDS b. gonorrhea c. influenza d. syphilis e. trichomoniasis f. diabetes g. mumps h. meningitis 581. Mark the correct statement about the development of human male sperm: a. spermatogenesis produces sperms with a diploid number of chromosomes b. spermatogenesis produces sperms with a haploid number of chromosomes c. correct course of spermatogenesis depends on the temperature in testicles d. length of sperm cell is 90 μm e. spermatogonia are able of active movement f. sperms production begins at birth and continues until the end of male’s life g. sperm cell consists of the glans, middle piece, and flagellum h. spermatogonia are produced in seminiferous tubules of the seminal vesicle 582. Mark the correct statement about male reproductive organs: a. epididymis is the site of sperm maturation b. ductus deferens is about 45-50 cm long c. spermatogonia can be found in walls of ductus deferens d. prostate is a paired organ often hypertrophic in the old age e. erection occurs mainly by the accumulation of blood in corpora cavernosa of penis f. thoracic portion of the spinal cord initiates and maintains penile erection g. sacral portion of the spinal cord initiates and maintains penile erection h. seminal vesicle has about 4-5 cm in length 583. Which of the following belongs to female internal genital organs: a. labia minora b. vulvar vestibule c. uterus d. ovaries e. clitoris f. womb g. uterine tubes h. ovulum 584. Which of the following belongs to female external genital organs: a. labia majora b. vulvar vestibule c. ovaries d. scrotum e. clitoris f. mons pubis g. fallopian tubes h. vagina 585. Which of the following terms refer to common name for all external genitals of female that surround the opening to the vagina: a. vagina b. vulva c. scrotum d. pudendum e. ovary f. labia minora and majora g. clitoris h. primary oocyte 586. Which of the following structures are found in female uterus: a. vaginal orifice b. dome-shaped superior portion called the body c. central portion called the fundus d. dome-shaped superior portion called the fundus e. central portion called the body f. inferior narrow portion called the cervix g. cervix that opens to vestibule h. vestibule 587. Mark the correct statement about the female reproductive organs: a. oviducts are paired glands that resemble almonds b. ovary is composed of ovarian cortex and internal ovarian medulla c. uterus is an unpaired hollow organ ending with finger-like projections d. hymen is located at the beginning of the uterus of virgin females e. mons pubis is erectile like male penis f. uterus is lined with ciliated simple columnar cells to help move a fertilized ovum g. vagina is the receptacle for the penis during sexual intercourse h. labia majora pupendi are covered by pubic hair 588. Testicles of male: a. produce male gametes – sperms b. produce large amounts of progesterone c. produce mainly estrogens d. produce testosterone e. produce mainly gestagens f. work under the control of pituitary gland g. have endocrine function h. have not only endocrine function 589. Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by: a. Treponema pallidum b. virus c. bacterium d. flagellate e. Trichomonas vaginalis f. Neisseria gonorrhoeae g. Amoeba proteus h. Entamoeba histolytica 590. Mark the correct statements about the female reproductive cycle: a. ovarian cycle is a series of events in the ovaries that occur during and after the maturation of an oocyte b. uterine cycle is also called the menstrual cycle c. uterine cycle is a concurrent series of changes in the endometrium of the vagina d. in general female reproductive cycle encompasses the ovarian and uterine cycles e. hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary and ovaries control the main events of the cycle f. hormones secreted by thyroid gland and ovaries control the main events of the cycle g. definite end to reproductive capability of women is called climacterium h. definite end to reproductive capability of women is called menopause 591. Which of the following is true about the proliferative phase of uterine cycle: a. thickness of the endometrium approximately doubles b. uterine endometrium proliferates c. menstrual flow from the uterus occurs d. menstrual flow passes from the uterine cavity through the cervix and vagina to the exterior e. rupture of the mature (Graafian) follicle occurs f. corpus luteum is formed g. Graafian follicle ruptures and the ovum is released h. uterine spiral arterioles constrict and the endometrium sloughs off 592. Which of the following is true about hormones of female reproduction: a. luteinizing hormone causes ovulation b. estrogen initiates development of the secondary sex characteristics c. luteinizing hormone stimulates secretion of progesterone by the corpus luteum d. luteinizing hormone is produced by corpus luteum e. follicle-stimulating hormone is produced by ovarian follicles f. estrogen promotes growth of the mammary ducts and fat deposition in the breasts of females g. progesterone is produced by corpus luteum h. androgens promote growth of the uterus and other female reproductive organs 593. Human intrauterine development lasts approximately about: a. 45 weeks b. 250 days c. 280 days d. 10 lunar months e. 9 lunar months f. 10 calendar months g. 290 days h. 40 weeks 594. Which of the following belongs to labour stages: a. histiotrophic stage b. chorionic stage c. dilation stage d. hemotrophic stage e. expulsion stage f. placental stage g. proliferative stage h. secretory stage 595. The connection between the human fetus and the maternal organism allowing the nutrient uptake is mediated by: a. all fetal membranes b. uterine smooth muscle c. placenta d. yolk sac e. cervix f. amnion and chorion g. amniotic fluid h. navel 596. Human placenta: a. has maternal part b. has fetal part c. produces milk d. has chorionic villi oriented towards the fetus e. produces gestagens f. produces relaxin g. is connected to fetus through the umbilical cord h. removes nutrients and oxygen from the fetus's blood 597. Female lactation is under the direct control of: a. caprolactam b. oxytocin c. vasopressin d. progesterone e. prolactin f. lactone g. estrogens h. luteinizing hormone 598. Which of the following belongs to barrier birth control methods: a. complete sexual abstinence b. male condom c. vaginal pouch d. vasectomy e. oral contraceptives f. hormonal injections g. circumcision h. sterilization 599. Sequence of events that occur during the labour are controlled by: a. external genitals b. contraception c. hormones only d. autonomic nervous system only e. hormones and autonomic nervous system f. somatic nervous system only g. hormones and somatic nervous system h. cerebellum and cerebral cortex 600. Correct complete and ordered sequence of events in human pregnancy is: a. fertilization, implantation, embryonic development, fetal development and birth b. fertilization, embryonic development, implantation, fetal development and birth c. implantation, fertilization, embryonic development, fetal development and birth d. fertilization, implantation, fetal development, embryonic development and birth e. fertilization, embryonic development, implantation, fetal development and birth f. fertilization, fetal development, embryonic development, implantation and birth g. implantation, birth, embryonic development, fetal development and fertilization h. birth, fetal development, embryonic development, fertilization and implantation601. ";             string flag = n.ToString();             n = n + 1;             string z = n.ToString();             x = x.Replace(":", ":" + System.Environment.NewLine);             x = x.Replace("a.", "" + System.Environment.NewLine + "a.");             x = x.Replace("b.", "" + System.Environment.NewLine + "b.");             x = x.Replace("c.", "" + System.Environment.NewLine + "c.");              x = x.Replace("d.", "" + System.Environment.NewLine + "d.");             x = x.Replace("e.", "" + System.Environment.NewLine + "e.");             x = x.Replace("f.", "" + System.Environment.NewLine + "f.");             x = x.Replace("g.", "" + System.Environment.NewLine + "g.");             x = x.Replace("h.", "" + System.Environment.NewLine + "h.");             x = x.Replace("i.", "" + System.Environment.NewLine + "i.");             x = x.Replace("j.", "" + System.Environment.NewLine + "j.");             string myText = x.Substring(x.IndexOf(flag), x.IndexOf(z) - x.IndexOf(flag) );                       Console.WriteLine(myText);                string a = "1. c,d,e 2. a,b,d,f,h 3. b,e,f,h 4. a,e,f 5. a,b,c,e,f 6. d 7. c,e 8. a,c 9. a,b,d,g,h 10. b,e,h 11. a,c,f,g 12. b,f,h 13. a,d,e,h 14. d,e,f,g 15. a,c,d,h 16. a,b,f,h 17. a,b,c,e,g 18. e,f,h 19. c,d,e,h 20. b,c,d,e,h 21. c,e 22. a,b,c,d,h 23. b,f,g,h 24. b,c,e,g 25. d,e,f 26. a,c,d,h 27. a,c,d,e 28. c,d 29. c,d,f 30. a,c,e,f,g 31. e,g,h 32. c,d,f 33. a,b,d,h 34. a,d,g,h 35. c,f,g,h 36. a,d,e,f,h 37. a,d,e,g,h 38. c,d,g,h 39. a,b,d,e,f,g,h 40. c,d,e,f,g 41. d,e,f 42. b,c,e,f 43. b,c,f,g 44. a,d,f 45. d,e,f,g 46. b,d,f 47. g,h 48. a,c,g 49. a,c,d,f 50. a,b,d,f,h 51. b,d,f 52. a,c,d 53. a,b,c,d,g List of correct answers 54. c,f,h 55. a,b,c,h 56. c,d,f,h 57. a,b,g,h 58. c,d,g 59. e 60. d,g 61. a,e,h 62. c,g 63. c,d,e 64. a,b,d,e,f,g,h 65. a,c 66. b,d,e,f,h 67. a,d,g,h 68. b,d,e,h 69. c,h 70. b,c,e 71. c,d,g 72. a,d,f 73. a,d,f,h 74. a,d,g 75. b,c,e,f,g,h 76. a,b,e,h 77. b,c,f,g,h 78. b,f 79. b,c,e,f,g 80. b,d,g 81. c,d,f 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171. d,f 172. a,b,d 173. a,e,g,h 174. b,d,h 175. c,e,f 176. c,d,e,g 177. b,d 178. c 179. a,e 180. c,g 181. a,f 182. b,h 183. b,d,e,f,h 184. b,f 185. c 186. d,e 187. a,d,f,g,h 188. e,f 189. b,d,h 190. b 191. c 192. d,e,f,g 193. d,f 194. b,e 195. a,e,g 196. c,d,f 197. c,e,h 198. a,d 199. c 200. a,c 201. b,e 202. c,d 203. b,d,f 204. b,c,g 205. a,d,f 206. e,f 207. e,f 208. c,d 209. e,f 210. b 211. c 212. e,f,g 213. c,d,e,h 214. a,b,c,d 215. a,e,f,h 216. e 217. a,e,f,h 218. b,c,d,e 219. a,b 220. c,d,f,g 221. b,d,e,g,h 222. a,e,f 223. b,c,e,g,h 224. a,b,f 225. c,e 226. c,g 227. b,e,h 228. b,c,f,g 229. c,g,h 230. c,d,e,h 231. d,h 232. b,d,f,h 233. b,d,f,h 234. b,d,f 235. c 236. c,d,e 237. b,f 238. g,h 239. c,g 240. a,b,d,e 241. b,c,d,f 242. a,b,e,f 243. c,d,e,g,h 244. b,c,g,h 245. a,c,d,e,h 246. a,c 247. b,d 248. b,c,f,g 249. b,c,e,f 250. b,h 251. d,f,h 252. b,c,d 253. c,e,f 254. c,d,e,f 255. b,c,d,f 256. e,f,g,h 257. c,e,g,h 258. c,e 259. d 260. a,c,e,g,h 261. c,d,e,g 262. b,e 263. b,h 264. b,g,h 265. e 266. b,e,h 267. a,b,g,h 268. b,f 269. a,d 270. b,d,e,f 271. a,b,d,g 272. b,e 273. a,b,f,g,h 274. e,f,g,h 275. b,f 276. c,d,e,g,h 277. b,c,f,g 278. b,c 279. a,b,e,h 280. c,d,f,g,h 281. e,g,h 282. b,f,g,h 283. c,e 284. e 285. b,c 286. e 287. e,f,g 288. c,d,e,f 289. d,e,g 290. a,b,c,d,e,g 291. a,b,c,h 292. a,d,g 293. d 294. a 295. c,d 296. c 297. a,b 298. b 299. b,e,f 300. b,c,g 301. c,d,e,h 302. a,c,d,e,g,h 303. e 304. h 305. c,f,g 306. b,d,h 307. d,e,h 308. b,d,g 309. a 310. b 311. e,f,g,h 312. a,b,g,h 313. c,d,g 314. a,b 315. b,e,f,g,h 316. a,b 317. b,h 318. c,d,f,g 319. b,c,h 320. a,b,c 321. b,c,e 322. a,c,d,e 323. c 324. e,f 325. c,d,e 326. a 327. a,c,f,g 328. b,d,e,f 329. c 330. d,f 331. d,f,h 332. d,f 333. b,c,e,h 334. c,d,f 335. c,d,h 336. b,d,e,g 337. b,c,f 338. a,c,d,e,h 339. a,b,e,g,h 340. b,e,f,g 341. b,e,f,g 342. c,d,f,g,h 343. b,c,e,f,g 344. b,d,g 345. a,e 346. c,f 347. a,e,g 348. d,g 349. c 350. b,c,e,g 351. b,d,f,h 352. c,e,g 353. c,g,h 354. a 355. b,c,e,g,h 356. c,d 357. d 358. b,d,e 359. a,e 360. b,g,h 361. a,e 362. d,e,f 363. a,b,c,d 364. a,g 365. c,f,g 366. a,d,g,h 367. b,c,d,e,f,h 368. f,g 369. a,b,c,f 370. a,e 371. b,c,d 372. a,e 373. c 374. c,d,g,h 375. b,c 376. c,g 377. a,d,g,h 378. b,e,g 379. a,c,g 380. b,c,d,f,g 381. c,d,f,h 382. c,d,f 383. c,d,e,f,h 384. b,g,h 385. d 386. a,b,c 387. e 388. a,b,e,f 389. b,h 390. a 435. a,b,c,d,e,g 436. e,g 437. b,c,h 438. a,b 439. a,c,h 440. b 441. b,h 442. a,b,c,e,f,h 443. a,b 444. b,d 445. a,f,h 391. a,b,d,g 446. 392. b,e,f,h 393. a,d 394. a,c,d,e,f,g,h 395. b,c 396. b,d,f,g 397. b,c,d 398. d 399. a,b,c,g,h 400. b,e,f,h 401. b,c 402. b,f 403. c,d,e,g 404. a,c,f 405. a,d,e,g 406. a,b,e,f 407. a,b,c,d,h 408. b 409. b 410. a,e,h 411. b,f,h 412. b,c,h 413. b 414. d,e,f,g,h 415. a,c,d 416. a,b,d 417. a,c,e,h 418. a,d,e,f 419. b,c,d,f 420. f 421. c,h 422. b,c,e 423. d,e,g 424. a,e,f 425. a,b,g,h 426. c 427. a,b,g,h 428. b,f,g,h 429. a,c,g,h 430. a,c,e,f 431. b,c,d 432. c 433. a,c,d,g 434. a,d,f 447. b,e 448. b,c 449. e,g,h 450. h 451. a,d 452. h 453. b,e 454. d,e,h 455. c,e,h 456. b,c,d,e,g,h 457. c,d,e,f,g 458. a,c,e,f,h 459. e,g,h 460. c,e,g 461. b,c,f,h 462. a,b,e 463. a,b,d,g 464. b,c,f 465. a,d,g 466. b,d,f 467. a,b,c,e 468. a,b,c,f,h 469. a,b,c,e,h 470. a 471. b,d,e 472. a,b,e 473. a,c,e,h 474. a,b,d,g 475. a,b 476. b,c,e 477. a,b,c,d,e 478. a,d,e 479. a,h 480. b,g 481. a,b,f,g,h 482. b,d,f,g 483. a,c,f,h 484. b,d,e,g 485. c 486. b,c,f,h 487. a,b,c,g 488. b 489. b,d 490. a,c,e,f,g 491. b,e,g 492. a,c,d,g,h 493. a,b,f,g 494. b,g 495. a,b,e,g,h 496. a,e,f,h 497. a,d,f,h 498. c,f,h 499. d,e,h 500. c 501. b,c 502. b 503. h 504. c,e,f 505. b 506. c,d,e,f,g,h 507. a,b,c,g,h 508. c,e,h 509. f 510. c,e,g,h 511. c,d,e,f 512. e 513. d,e,f,g,h 514. b,d,g,h 515. a,c 516. c,e 517. a,b,e,g,h 518. a,b,d,e,f,g,h 519. b,c,g 520. b,c,e,h 521. b,c,e,g,h 522. a,b 523. b,d,f,h 524. a,b,f,h 525. b 526. a,b,c 527. a,d,f,h 528. a,b,e,h 529. b,f 530. c,d 531. a,c,d,e,f,h 532. a,e,f,g 533. a,d,e,g,h 534. c,d,g,h 535. c,h 536. d,e,g 537. a,f,g,h 538. b,c,e 539. b,d,e,f,g,h 540. c,g 541. b,g,h 542. d,e 543. a,d,e,f,g,h 544. c,e,h 545. f 546. e 547. d,f 548. a,c,e,g 549. d,e,f 550. d,f,g,h 551. a,c,f,g,h 552. e,f,g 553. c,e,f,h 554. d,f 555. d,f 556. d,e,f,g,h 557. b,c,e,f,g,h 558. a,e 559. c,f,g,h 560. a,b,g 561. a,c,d,h 562. a,b,d,g 563. b,d,e,f 564. b,c,e,g,h 565. c,f,h 566. c,g 567. a,b,e 568. c,d,f,h 569. a,d,e,g,h 570. a 571. g 572. b,e,g 573. b,d,f,g 574. a,b,c,g 575. d,e 576. b,c,d 577. b,c,d,e 578. a,e,f 579. h 580. a,b,d,e 581. b,c 582. a,b,e,g,h 583. c,d,f,g 584. a,b,e,f 585. b,d 586. d,e,f 587. b,g,h 588. a,d,f,g,h 589. a,c 590. a,b,d,e,h 591. a,b 592. a,b,c,f,g 593. c,d,h 594. c,e,f 595. c 596. a,b,e,f,g 597. e 598. b,c 599. e 600. a601";                a =    a.Replace(":", ":" + System.Environment.NewLine);                a =    a.Replace("a.", "" + System.Environment.NewLine + "a.");                a =    a.Replace("b.", "" + System.Environment.NewLine + "b.");                a =    a.Replace("c.", "" + System.Environment.NewLine + "c.");                 a =    a.Replace("d.", "" + System.Environment.NewLine + "d.");                a =    a.Replace("e.", "" + System.Environment.NewLine + "e.");                a =    a.Replace("f.", "" + System.Environment.NewLine + "f.");                a =    a.Replace("g.", "" + System.Environment.NewLine + "g.");                a =    a.Replace("h.", "" + System.Environment.NewLine + "h.");                a =    a.Replace("i.", "" + System.Environment.NewLine + "i.");                a =    a.Replace("j.", "" + System.Environment.NewLine + "j.");            string theanswer = a.Substring(a.IndexOf(flag), a.IndexOf(z) - a.IndexOf(flag) );                         
        }
    }
}

Show compiler warnings [ + ] Show input
Compilation time: 0,2 sec, absolute running time: 0,14 sec, cpu time: 0,12 sec, average memory usage: 15 Mb, average nr of threads: 3, absolute service time: 0,41 sec